Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:1 In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. [Gen 1:1; Is 9:6] |
Bible Question:
Emmaus, Hank, Makarios, Morant61, EdB and anyone else who cares to reply: I believe with all my heart that the Son of God, the Logos (John 1:1), is eternal, that he was in the beginning. But I sincerely would like to know: technically, when did Jesus become Jesus? I.e., would it be technically correct to refer to the Son of God in the Old Testament as Jesus, since he was not named Jesus until after his incarnation, his birth? Again, I am not doubting the eternality or deity of the Son of God. I am just wondering, is it correct to refer to him in the OT period as Jesus, Messiah or some other name? Thank you in advance for your help. --kalos |
Bible Answer: Greetings Kalos! Excellent question! Jesus Christ, the Son of God, King of Kings and Lord of Lords, was, as I know that you believe, Himself present at the very creation of this world, speaking the world itself into existence (Psalm 33:6,9; Isaiah 45:18). So, if God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit were present before the foundation of the earth (John 8:58), then when did God the Son actually "become" Jesus Christ? Psalm 2:7 (see Hebrews 1:5) helps us to unlock the "key" to this question, since the Ancient of Days (God the Father) establishes the Father/Son relationship with God the Son, which is a relationship that was planned in eternity past and realized in the incarnation. Daniel 7:9-28 gives us a picture of heaven when the Son of Man, or God the Son, was presented before God the Father, and took upon Himself glory and a kingdom (v.14). And His kingdom would be an everlasting kingdom that would never pass away (v.14). In much the same way, God chose David in 2 Sam. 7:8-22 from the pasture and sheepfold, to be ruler over His people, making David a great name, like the name of the great men who are on the earth. But the name of God the Son would be highly revered over every other name in all of the earth, "so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow" ... "and every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father" (Philippians 2:9-11). And the Lord, being crowned with glory and honor (Daniel 7:14; Hebrews 2:7,9), saw it fitting to bring many sons to glory (Hebrews 2:10), not ashamed to call them "brethren", who will be saints of the Highest One (Daniel 7:18; Hebrews 2:11). Jesus, the Messiah, the "Anointed One", was God the Son, who was 'anointed' in Daniel 7:14 in much the same way that King David was anointed as King of Israel three separate times (1 Sam. 16:13; 2 Sam. 2:4; 2 Sam. 5:3), being the great Savior and Redeemer of God's people, anointed by God Himself to become the one sacrifice for all time (Hebrews 7:27). All of the Messianic prophecies that were spoken by the Old Testament prophets were particular and given in such a way for a specific reason: so that only in the Person of Jesus Christ could they ever possibly all be fulfilled! In fact, Daniel 9:24-27 gives us the exact time of the first coming of God the Son to this world. All of the Old Testament prophecies unite in their witness that "Jesus Christ is the Son of God" (John 20:31). Therefore, Jesus was rightly called and identified as the "Messiah" that was to come, being Anointed as such by God the Father. So when did God the Son become Jesus Christ? The "sure" answer is that God the Son was anointed as such according to the plan of God the Father before the world came into being. But you could also argue that God the Son became Jesus Christ when He presented Himself before His Father (the Ancient of Days) to assume the monumental task (Hebrews 7:27) that only God could do. When He assumed this chosen task, planned before the foundation of the world by God the Father, then, you could argue, that He, in truth, became the promised Messiah, the Son of Man, Jesus Christ that was to come, fulfilling his Father's will, and bringing many to glory (Hebrews 2:10) in His precious name. But then again, just looking through Scripture, you could also argue that God the Son only became "Jesus" at the incarnation, when His earthly parents would call Him "Jesus" (Matthew 1:25; Luke 2:27), even though they were directed to call Him "Jesus" by the angel in Luke 1:31. Proverbs 30:1-4 reflects on man's inability to comprehend the infinite God. Because of this inability, the author abases himself and humbly acknowledges his ignorance. Reverence for God is the beginning of true wisdom. In verse 4, the author asks, "Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind..?" ... "Tell me if you know!" This is very likely a reference to God the Father and God the Son, speaking of God the Father and God the Son in the 'present-tense' during this Old Testament time. Is the Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament actually the preincarnate Christ? Exodus 3:1,2,5,6; Zechariah 1:12,13; Judges 13:8,9; Daniel 4:13,17,23, 8:16, 9:21,22; 1 Kings 19:4-8; Psalm 34:7; Daniel 3:15-30; 1 Chronicles 21:1,14,15 and Joshua 5:15 seem to indicate that the appearances of the Angel of the Lord in Old Testament times were actually preincarnate appearances of Christ, meaning that Christ was acting on behalf of God the Father, since God the Father lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see (1 Tim. 6:16; John 5:37), but Jesus, who is at the Father's side, has made him known (John 1:18). Blessings to you, Makarios |