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NASB | John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:1 In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. [Gen 1:1; Is 9:6] |
Bible Question:
Regarding the NASB translation of the Bible: Can you give me your views and supporting sources on the accuracy of it to the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts? Recently, I was told that the translators of the modern Bibles intentionally left out the article "a" in the verse John 1:1 (ie. the famous God vs "a god" translation arguement) Unfortunately, not being a Greek/Hebrew scholar, I had no convincing response to give him, so responded that I would not acccept his assertion of intentional omission by the NASB translators anymore than he would accept my assertion that his NWT was inaccurate. Pretty weak huh? What say ye on this matter? If any of you can translate Greek or Hebrew I am very interested in hearing your input. Thank you, In Christ and loving Him, Edie |
Bible Answer: Greetings Edie! One more post if I may! :-) It is dangerous to get me going on a topic like this! ;-) The following is a list of verses where 'theos', in the nominative case and without a definite article, occurs in the Greek New Testament, but the NWT does not translate theses occurances as 'a god'. 1) John 1:18 (NWT) - "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom with the Father is the one that has explained him." The phrase 'only-begotten god' does not include the definite article in the Greek. So, the NWT, to be true to their principle, should have translated it as 'an only-begotten god'. 2) John 8:54 (NWT) - "Jesus answered: 'If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father that glorifies me, he who you say is your God;" There is no definite article before 'theos'. So, they should have translated it as 'a god of you' - if there point is valid. 3) Rom. 8:33 (NWT) - "Who will file accusation against God's chosen ones? God is the One who declares [them] righteous." Shouldn't it read, 'A god declares righteous'? 4) 1 Cor. 8:4 (NWT) - "Now concerning the eating of foods offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is no God but one." These should suffice to demonstrate that the NWT does not follow it's own principle of translation adopted in John 1:1. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |