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NASB | Luke 6:38 "Give, and it will be given to you. They will pour into your lap a good measure--pressed down, shaken together, and running over. For by your standard of measure it will be measured to you in return." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Luke 6:38 "Give, and it will be given to you. They will pour into your lap a good measure--pressed down, shaken together, and running over [with no space left for more]. For with the standard of measurement you use [when you do good to others], it will be measured to you in return." |
Subject: "An eye for an eye" relevant now? how? |
Bible Note: I'm not sure I understand what you mean. Those passages are what I was referring to in my question. I agree that a person should be treated equally. Jesus references "an eye for an eye" from the Old Testament, I assume, because people were incorrectly justifying things they were doing with that passage at the time. After refering for the passage he says "but," which, I also assume would show that He is explaining what, now, should be done. The same for "love thy neighbor, and hate thine enemy" from the Old Testament. He has a "but" for each of these that indicates to me that he is correcting the Old Testament passages, or changing them, "Love your enemies, bless them that curse you." You say "through the love you show." Who are you showing? Jesus says to "bless them that curse you," and "pray for them which use you." When I'm praying, I don't show anyone. Are you saying that Jesus says we need to "do good" to our enemies primarily, as representatives of God, to show people something? Perhaps I misread your reply, but as I said, it appears that Jesus changed or at least altered what was said in the Old Testament of "an eye for an eye." That is what I feel, but what I'm focusing on in my question is that many quote the reference of an "eye for an eye" to justify revenge which is hateful, and quote the Bible to justify it. Is this what you were referring to when you said "we all want vengeance for wrongs done?" Are you saying that these people are actually not correctly using the Bible verse? Basically what I'm wondering is, if "an eye for an eye" can be justified as loving, how can it be justified given what Jesus said in the New Testament? In what situation might a person correctly quote the passage in order to justify something being done. So basically I'm wondering how 'an eye for an eye' can be done with love, and I'm also asking for a more informed opinion (more informed that mine) as to the relevance of that passage now, after the New Testament, and if it is relevant, why. Thanks. |