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NASB | Mark 6:34 When Jesus went ashore, He saw a large crowd, and He felt compassion for them because they were like sheep without a shepherd; and He began to teach them many things. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Mark 6:34 When Jesus went ashore, He saw a large crowd [waiting], and He was moved with compassion for them because they were like sheep without a shepherd [lacking guidance]; and He began to teach them many things. |
Subject: Love/Feed/Tend His Sheep |
Bible Note: Greetings Rowdy! Here is the text of the passage in question: ************************************* John 21:15 - "When they had finished eating, Jesus said to Simon Peter, 'Simon son of John, do you truly love (agapao) me more than these?' 'Yes, Lord,' he said, 'you know that I love (phileo) you.' Jesus said, 'Feed my lambs.' 16 Again Jesus said, 'Simon son of John, do you truly love (agapao) me?' He answered, 'Yes, Lord, you know that I love (phileo) you.' Jesus said, 'Take care of my sheep.' 17 The third time he said to him, 'Simon son of John, do you love (phileo) me?' Peter was hurt because Jesus asked him the third time, 'Do you love (phileo) me?' He said, 'Lord, you know all things; you know that I love (phileo) you.' Jesus said, 'Feed my sheep.'" ************************************** I have heard both sides of this interpretation. I tend to take a middle ground. It seems to me that more is occuring in this passage than simply using a different word for variety. However, it seems to be going too far to say that 'phileo' is a 'lesser' kind of love. John uses 'phileo' in several places that indicate he did not see it as a lesser 'love'. For example: John 5:20 - "For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows him all he does. Yes, to your amazement he will show him even greater things than these." John 11:3 - "So the sisters sent word to Jesus, 'Lord, the one you love (phileo) is sick.'" John 16:27 - "No, the Father himself loves (phileo) you because you have loved (phielo) me and have believed that I came from God." So, I have a hard time accepting that there is a clear distinction between 'phileo' and 'agapao'. However, the text does indicate that something more is going on than simply using different words for variety sake. Jesus asks John three questions, to which, John replies each time with 'You know that I love (phileo) You.' The questions are: "Simon son of John, do you truly love (agapao) me more than these?" - v. 15. "Simon son of John, do you truly love (agapao)me?" - v. 16. "Simon son of John, do you love (phileo) me?" - v. 17. Without a doubt, Jesus seems to be testing Peter. In His first question, He asks Peter if he loves Him 'more than these'. Peter responds with a different verb for 'love' and ignores the 'more than these' part of the question. In His second question, Jesus drops the 'more than these', but still uses 'agapao' for 'love'. Peter again responds with the verb 'phileo' for 'love'. In His third question, Jesus uses the same verb as Peter. I have heard many people comment on the fact that whereas Peter denied Christ three times, he now gets to acknowledge Him three times. I think that this is the key to this passage. The words seem to differ because Jesus is putting Peter to the test. It isn't that the words necessarily have a great difference in meaning, but that Jesus definitely seems to be challenging Peter's love. Why? I believe that He wanted to give him a chance to redeem his failure when he denied Christ. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |