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NASB | Amos 1:1 The words of Amos, who was among the sheepherders from Tekoa, which he envisioned in visions concerning Israel in the days of Uzziah king of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam son of Joash, king of Israel, two years before the earthquake. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Amos 1:1 The words of Amos, who was among the sheepherders of Tekoa, which he saw [in a divine revelation] concerning Israel in the days of Uzziah king of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel, two years before the earthquake. [Zech 14:5] |
Subject: JEHOVAH RAFFA |
Bible Note: Greetings Wannabe! Thanks for the response! I wasn't sure how to respond because you seem to be agreeing and disagreeing at the same time! :-) My concern is that we somehow turn God's name into a magical formula. Every language changes and has different ways of pronouncing sounds. Thus, you mentioned other OT names. We write Moses as 'Moses'. The Greeks wrote it as 'Moseus'. The Hebrews wrote is as 'Mosheh'. However we write it though, the name is the same. YHWH is the same. It is a name. In particular, it is a name which we don't know how to pronounce. Therefore, we could simply transliterate it everytime it occurs in the OT as 'YHWH' or we can translate it. The translators have chosen to translate it as 'LORD'. This actually is a defendable translation. You mentioned Luke 4:18-19. Here Jesus is quoting Is. 61:1-2, a passage where YHWH is used. Luke, writting under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit translates YHWH in v. 19 as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. My question is this: Was he wrong to do so? Was he hiding the Divine name? My understanding of the inspiration of Scripture is such that Luke wrote exactly what God wanted him to write, thus God Himself translated 'YHWH' as "Lord". So, why would it be wrong for us to do the same in the OT? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |