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NASB | Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Listen carefully, the virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and she will call his name Immanuel (God with us). [Is 9:6; Jer 31:22; Mic 5:3-5; Matt 1:22, 23] |
Bible Question:
Apologetics Help Please! My humanities instructor posted the following in our class blog: 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. This prophecy is the result of a mistranslation of a passage in the Book of Isaiah (7:14). Hebrew has the words almah (“young woman") and bethula (“virgin"). In the original, the prophet uses almah. The word bethula appears in subsequent translations. Thus Isaiah never really intended a virgin birth, but simply a birth by a young woman. The New Testament authors thus have Jesus fulfilling a prophecy that was never made in the first place. Can anyone clarify this for me? I don't know what language the "origional" text is in, even if I did I wouldn't be able to translate it. Thanks! |
Bible Answer: Greetings Mscanlon1! There are several issues that need to be addressed in regards to your question. The first question which must be addressed is the meaning of the terms themselves. Sceptics have long tried to argue that a 'maiden' or 'almah' is not the same as a 'virgin' or 'bethula'. They are partially right, but they are also partially wrong. A maiden would normally be a virgin. :-) Thus, the sharp distinction between the two terms simply doesn't work. Further evidence of this is that the Hebrew speaking translators of the LXX used the Greek word for 'virgin' to translate the Hebrew word 'almah'. Thus, they clearly understood Is. 7:14 as a reference to a virgin. The second issue that must be addressed is the original context of the prophecy. Some prophecies have dual meanings. The orginal prophecies probably only meant that a young woman, who was currently a virgin, would conceive and give birth as a sign to Israel at that time. However, we know from the New Testament that there was an even greater fulfillment where a virgin would conceive without knowing a mn. Which, brings us to the final issue. The doctrine of the Virgin Birth does not stand or fall upon how one translates the term in Is. 7:14. Why? Because, the inspired New Testament specifically tells us that Mary was a virgin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |