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NASB | Isaiah 7:10 ¶ Then the LORD spoke again to Ahaz, saying, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Isaiah 7:10 ¶ Then the LORD spoke again to [King] Ahaz, saying, |
Bible Question (short): RE: Isaiah 7:10 - 16 |
Question (full): Hello, I appreciate your response. I'm very sorry to sound oblivious to the abovementioned inquiry as I'm afraid for the most part, I am. This is why I decided to take an introductory course on religion. I've been doing much research (without much luck before deciding to send you this e-mail) to try to clearly answer the following question that was posed during my last class in that course: Jews and Christians have very different interpretations of this section of the text. (Isaiah 7:10-16) Try to read it through both perspectives. What might a Jewish reader take from it? What might a Christian think of? I have been having a hard time with this. I am not very able to properly analyze this section of the Bible in order to disgtinguish between the two perspectives. In considering your response, "...In Jewish thinking, the chapter isn't even a Messianic prophecy. They see it strictly as a prophetic utterance of Isaiah for the days of Ahaz. To them, the Messianic issue is a purely Christian eisegesis..." I'm not clear. Please explain: "Messianic" and "eisegesis" Also, I referred to Deut 22:23 in the Hebrew Bible and notice that it reads: "If there is a young woman, a virgin already engaged to be married, and a man meets her in the town and lies with her..." ..I don't see "bethulah" .. (my thinking is that, you writing "cf Deut." may have something to do with it? Lastly, in attempting to do this research, I've read (written by a Jewish author): "...the word sign in hebrew does not have to be supernatural,it does, however, have to be visible, and a virgin birth could never function as a sign since it is not visible..." and "...(the translation of the hebrew word in verse 14 as virgin is incorrect)..." I also wasn't very clear about the meaning of this. Am I correct to assume, then, that Jews don't believe that verse of the chapter? If they don't, what is their interpretation? and again in my research: "...clearly, the birth of someone (ie. jesus) 100 years later would not have been a sign to ahaz and his people..." Do the Christians refer to Immanuel as Jesus? I'm apologize if this post is not clear or written with any major inaccuracies. Thank you again for your consideration. I'm finding this to be a great help. |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Is 7:10 | Author | ||
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Aretha | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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Aretha | ||
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DocTrinsograce |