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NASB | Job 38:7 When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Job 38:7 When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God (angels) shouted for joy? |
Subject: Can angels sing? |
Bible Note: Yes, Azure, I believe it is a translation problem, the problem being a paraphrased version (NIV) versus a literal, word-for-word translation (e.g., NASB). The Greek word (ego, Strong 3004) means to say, relate, tell, speak, etc. but no where is it defined as meaning "to sing." So we obviously are getting in the NIV rendition that which is common to paraphrases, a translator's commentary on what he thought the passage meant instead of a translation of what the passage actually said. Thus I would view with great caution using this sole verse, and from a paraphased version at that, to support the position that angels sing. They indeed may. But Revelation 5:12 from the NIV falls short of proving it. The more literal translations, KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, and Holman CSB are of one accord in that they translate the verb "say," not "sing". ..... It is interesting to note that in Rev. 5:9, John, speaking of the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders, says that they "SANG a new song SAYING"... Here for SANG we have an entirely different Greek word (ado, Strong 103) which means "to sing" and in the very same verse the word translated "saying" is the same Greek word (ego, Strong 3004) meaning "to say" which NIV in vs. 12 renders "to sing." Thus it becomes quite clear from an examination of these two Greek words that the NIV translators availed themselves of the liberties afforded by paraphrasing a passage instead of translating it. It boils down to this: Do we want to know what the text actually says or had we rather have translators tell us what they think it means? ..... One may ask, "Is it really of vital importance to know whether angels sing?" Certainly one's salvation doesn't hinge on this question, so it is reasonable to say that there are larger issues affecting man's relationship with God than whether angels sing. But let's expand the question and ask, "Is it important to know what the word of God actually says, or is it o.k. to take a paraphrased version and be satisfied with that?" Is it good enough to have the eternal word of God filtered through the minds of so-called translators who really render a paraphrased version instead of translating as literally as possible what the text actually says? .... From the Foreward to the NASB: "The New American Standard has been produced with the conviction that the WORDS (emphasis added) of Scripture as originally penned in the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek were inspired by God." ..... From the Preface to the NIV, "They (the translators) have striven for MORE THAN A WORD-FOR-WORD translation...fidelity to the THOUGHT of the biblical writers (emphases added). So therein lies the critical difference between formal word-for-word translations and paraphrased "dynamic equivalence" thought-for-thought versions. The former seeks to render into English, or other receptor languages, as accurately as possible the actual words of the biblical text. The latter renders into English what the translators think the writer thought and what they think the writer meant by what he said. ..... So, did the angels "sing" in Rev. 5:12, as the NIV says, or did they "say" as the Greek text indicates and the literal versions translate? Are the translators of the NIV in this instance giving us what the apostle John actually wrote, or are they merely giving us their opinion of what he meant? Furthermore, does a translator's opinion afford sufficient grounds on which to base a doctrine that angels sing? In the absence of other corroborating Scripture, I'd have to say no. .... The Bible is full of references to the WORD of the Lord. "Moses told Aaron all the WORDS of the Lord...(cf Exodus 4:28). Paul told Timothy to preach the WORD (cf. 2 Timothy 4:2). "Thy WORD is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path (Psalm 119:105). "Thy WORD have I hidden in mine heart that I might not sin against Thee (Psalm 119:11). With such strong emphasis as the Bible places on the word of the Lord, why should we be willing to settle for a paraphrased substitute? Is the word of the Lord sufficient, or does it need to be gussied up by the insertion of translators' ideas and opinions? There are many commentaries on Scripture, some of them quite good, but even the best of them should never become a part of the biblical text. --Hank |