Subject: Offering? Or having offered... |
Bible Note: "Everthing is in the eternal present to God who is not subject to time." True, but the atonement itself took place inside the boundaries of time and space, no? "I am sorry if my phrasing has disturbed you, but the sacrifice of Jesus is still efficaious even today as it was efficaious for the saints of the Old Testament. It is the one sacrifice." But is the sacrifice itself eternal? That is the point of difference, in my view. Certainly the benefits are applied throughout all human history, but the propitiatory sacrifice was confined to a few hours on a hill outside Jerusalem. I understand that the Eucharist, in RCC understanding, is the means by which Christ's sacrifice is "made present" (please feel to correct imprecision on my part; I want to get this down). How was Christ's sacrifice "made present" to those who lived before the Incarnation? Interestingly enough, for those of you reading this within the time frame as I am posting it, James White details a recent debate with Robert Sungenis on this very topic at http://www.aomin.org Thanks! --Joe! |