Bible Question:
i have recently been talking to a friend that is apparently part of the KJV only movement. naturally, he came across as arrogant to me, but his response was that he was confident. the challenge was good, of course, as it has encouraged me to delve deeper into to roots of the Word. he argues that the KJV does NOT come from the greek--- he says that there were 5000 some copies of the greek and that the KJV came from some latin text that i can neither spell nor remember. any thoughts are appreciated. TIA |
Bible Answer: No, King James ordered "That a translation be made of the whole Bible, as consonant as can be to the original Hebrew and Greek; and this to be set out and printed, without any marginal notes, and only to be used in all churches of England in time of divine service." The 1611 version had a title page that read, "THE NEWE Testament of our Lord and Saviour JESUS CHRIST. Newly Translated out of the Originall Greeke: and with the former Translations diligently compared and revised, by his Majesties speciall Commandment. IMPRINTED at London by Robert Barker, Printer to the Kings most Excellent Majestie. ANNO DOM. 1611. Cum Privilegio." Note that neither of these quotes contain the word "Latin." (Jerome's Latin Vulgate might have been consulted as part of the translators' resources, but we know of a certainty that his Greek texts were used.) |
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Ken John | ||
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hnsq | ||
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FytRobert | ||
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grabeau | ||
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lookN4luv | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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Eclipse | ||
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huckabee46 | ||
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DorisD | ||
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cacoon | ||
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cacoon |