Bible Question (short): The Primacy of Gods' word |
Question (full): Dear justme, Your response brings up a number of issues. I'll start by stating my view on the Primacy of Gods' word.(2 Tim.2:15) Gods' word must be foremost(primary) in our dealing in scriptural matters.(2 Tim. 3:16-17) We do need to be careful that we do not supplant 21st Century cultural influences for the Word! (Jn. 17:17) I hope we are in agreement on this. I have no problem with women being in the mission field or serving as teachers and speakers like Dr.Grahams daughter. There doesn't appear to be any scriptural prohibition against it. However, when it comes to doctrinal guides pertaining to who is qualified to be a Bishop, deacon, or Pastor-Teacher I believe 1 Tim. 3 and Titus 1 are ample for support. Note that ALL references to offices are in the masculine in the Greek! This is a debatable matter, but I personally hold to these offices in the NT as being masculine in gender. (Our church holds to this view as well). Do I "think that the culture of biblical times was inspired as the word is?" I can't speak to this other than to say I know the word is inspired, but will not go beyond what is written into speculation! (1 Cor.4:6) Gal.3:28 is dealing with the "oneness" of those in Christ, not gender neutrality in heaven. As far as "Our Father God neither male or female, sexually, but complete in and of the Fathers self?" What does this mean? I'm not sure but it seems to stretch the revealed word of God.(1 Jn 3:2) Scripture ALWAYS refers to God in the Masculine, the Greek is very specific here! I will gladly see something if it's in the realm of Biblical truth. Hope this helps. BradK |