Subject: what does Mark 8:27-38 verses mean |
Bible Note: Matt 27:50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. Where in this verse does one get that murder "was an act He performed Himself" or that Jesus killed himself? In the Scripture we have explicit statements as to who was "responsible" for the death of Christ. We have explicit statements of the sovereign predestination of the death of Christ. Contrariwise, we have NO explicit statements that God was "responsible" for the death of Christ. The claim is that the sovereignty of God IMPLIES the "responsibility" of God. This is a fallacious implication of the express statements of Scripture. Matt 27:35 And when they had crucified Him, they divided up His garments among themselves by casting lots. ... Matt 27:50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. Men crucified Jesus. Could they have done it contrary to the sovereign predestinating plan of God? No, men are "responsible" not sovereign. Christ "yielded up His spirit." "For this reason the Father loves Me, because I lay down My life so that I may take it again. "No one has taken it away from Me, but I lay it down on My own initiative. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from My Father." (John 10:17, 18) This passage asserts authority, sovereignty, not "responsibility." God is sovereign, not "responsible." Neither Jesus nor the Father killed Jesus. He gave his life and men murdered him. There are express statements to that effect in Scripture, and there are no express statements in Scripture that say Jesus killed himself or that the Father did. There are express statements of the sovereignty of God in the death of Christ. Sovereignty does not imply "responsibility." |