Bible Question: In Matthew 8: 28 it reffers to two men possessed of the devil, but in Mark 5:2 it reffers to just one man with an unclean spirit. How can we explain that difference? |
Bible Answer: In a theology and scripture study course I did back in 1986 we were told that the Gospel of Matthew was written to a community which was half jewish christian and half Syrian christian or in other words christians of jewish and gentile extract. This is the reason that Matthew often uses two instead of one such as the two blind men, see Matt 9:27 "As Jesus went on from there, two blind men followed Him, crying out, "Have mercy on us, Son of David!" compare Mark 6: 46 "a blind beggar named Bartimaeus, the son of Timaeus, was sitting by the road." By the use of two Matthew shows his community that the Good News belongs both to the jewish and Gentile christians in his community. Rainbow Maker |