Bible Question: In Matthew 8: 28 it reffers to two men possessed of the devil, but in Mark 5:2 it reffers to just one man with an unclean spirit. How can we explain that difference? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Ailam! The MacArthur NKJV Study Bible suggests, "Mark 5:2 and Luke 8:27 mention only one of the men. Evidently one was more dominant than the other." I hope this helps! --Nolan |