Subject: during the 3 days? |
Bible Note: With respect. You extracted my writings from proper context. I am presently familiar with Pet. 1:20, and am not surprised of its' reference by any good Bible student, in due time. I was not aware that the discussion had reached an "Interpretative" state. Wasn't the proponent in the process of discerning a proper conclusion? Was he not asking questions? Further, please note:..."one's own interpretation". Meaning two are more are obliged to review, analysis, discuss, debate in the process of concluding...with help from the Holy Spirit...per scripture;..."where two or more are gathered, there I will be also". During that process, where scripture is not sufficiently clear to a proponent, is he not permitted to engage as an interlocutor? If not, please give scripture reference. Also, if not, please explain the process by which proper interpretation becomes established? Bible students recognize some scriptures are not sufficiently clear for immediate conclusion...less this and 75 percent...estimate...of exchanges would not be necessary. Positions which contribute to stifling discussion or intermediate opinion in the process of finding proper conclusions of The Words' meaning is not G-d's way, I submit. Less much productive discussion of scripture would be lost. Isn't the concern... how an interpretation is accomplished?: without arguing, criticism of position and malice towards opponent and without other proper decorum? It is not my desire or intent to violate forum rules which I have familiarized myself. Please be specific and direct me to the words of such rules I am in violation of , as you have charged. |