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NASB | Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her seed; He shall bruise you on the head, And you shall bruise him on the heel." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Genesis 3:15 "And I will put enmity (open hostility) Between you and the woman, And between your seed (offspring) and her Seed; He shall [fatally] bruise your head, And you shall [only] bruise His heel." [Gal 4:4] |
Subject: Is there any scripture regarding whether |
Bible Note: "James 1:13-15 (NASB95) 13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. 14 But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust. 15 Then when lust has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and when sin is accomplished, it brings forth death. Can you show me in the scriptures above where it says anything about Jesus must have the potential to sin before we are tempted. Does it not teach we are tempted when we give into our "OWN" lust. Can you show any scripture that teaches such a teaching." ---------------------------- No, steve, the passage you quoted does not teach that temptation is the act of conceiding to lust. It teaches that temptation is an enticement to sin and that IF we then conceid to that temptation, THEN it gives conception to sin. Let us suppose for a moment that your understanding is the corret one: "we are tempted WHEN WE GIVE IN to our "own" lust." "Giving in" to lust is sin, is it not? as the "giving in" is the performing of the lustful sin that we desire. So now if we equate temptation as the performing of sin (giving in to lust) then the writer of the hebrews would lead us to conclude that Jesus must have sinned!! Hbr 2:18 For in that he himself HATH SUFFERED BEING TEMPTED, he is able to succour them that are tempted. Let us interject your understanding from James that one is tempted "when he gives in to his own lust" Hbr 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being "tempted when he had given in to his own lust", he is able to succour them that are tempted. If however we apply the understanding which I have presented which is that temptation is an "appeal to sin" that we must overcome - but not the giving in as you suggest, we can understand hebrews far better: Hbr 2:18 For in that he himself hath "denied the appeal to sin", he is able "having overcome temptation" to succour them that are tempted. If Jesus had not had the potential to sin, then an appeal by satan to him to sin would have no purpose whatsoever, as I said it would be little more than a token gesture. A reasonable analogy might be to tempt a blind man to read pornography. "There was a pornography book on the table, but I never read through it" Would that statement have any impact coming from a blind man? no (I know there are other ways for this man to sin and you are free to pick at the loopholes if you wish to show an inability to grasp a simple concept) Let us consider also Adam, the first man, who was not born of corrupted seed but was made by Gods own hand, created righteous and without sin, who was a figure of the one who was to come (Romans 5:14) that is Jesus Christ who was the "last adam" Adam also who was holy and pure in every way as was Jesus, though not God incarnate, nevertheless had also the potential to sin and we know this because he quite deliberately (1Tim 2:14) fulfilled that potential However, rather than ending anecdotally, I would like to finish by reminding you of the initial contention of my post, which is that if we suppose that temptation is "Giving in to lust" then hebrews teaches us that Jesus also gave in to his lust, ergo he sinned. It seems to me that the suggestion that Jesus was incapable of sin, is a far more dangerous claim than the understanding that Jesus overcame sin and temptation through total obedience to the Father through faith, as he calls us each to do by his example to us. |