Results 81 - 100 of 292
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: bowler Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | genealogy from Exodus to Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207130 | ||
Doc Oh Jolly Good Doc, Jolly Good! I am very impressed. Your math is better than mine.:-) Thank you for that. Just an unworthy son. blessings abound |
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82 | genealogy from Exodus to Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207132 | ||
Azure Thank you Azure. I perhaps was thinking about the fact that the ages of men went slowly down from around 900, then by the time of the end of Genesis a good bit lower, then we have Moses at 120, then the Psalms speaks of 80 years if by strength. I was merely trying to apply what "might" be possible according to the "record" of scripture to the question at hand by using a little math. I pray I have not offended you by this. Did you see Doc's post? I must say his math was far superior to mine. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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83 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207172 | ||
Zor I found something, although it does not answer your question, it has some information that might be valuable to the work you are doing. It is large and you have sift through it for things you might want. I make a disclaimer up front, that it really does not resolve your issue about the generations and whether there was a good time frame. But it does provide a lot of information on both Luke's and Mathew's genealogies and compares them and refutes a lot objections to their veracity. http://www.biblestudymanuals.net/genealogy_of_Jesus.htm I found something else in trying to sift through things - Salmon was Caleb's cousin? Caleb's birth was listed somewhere back in Numbers? Only Caleb and Joshua made it into the promised land? What happened to Salmon? Numbers was written in about 1406 B.C.? Joshua was written in about 1000 B.C.? Salmon did to get into Canaan land, did he, was he a child? Then if that is how he survived to get into Canaan, how did he live 400 or a bit under years to be around to marry Rahab in Joshua which was written about 1000? Am I just triping over the math here? I believe the Bible is the literaly sovereign word of God and I am not questioning His sovereignty in authoring the Bible and getting it right. This is what we call a "textual problem". It may not be resolvable, there are mysteries. I did not mean to add to the dilema for you, just thought you might be interested in the two things I came across about this. And I purposefully did not look every single thing up about Salmon being this or that because it became too much. I stumbled across someone writing about it and took that away wondering about. I refused to provide a link to that because I did not like the tone toward God's holy word. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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84 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207173 | ||
Zor I have followed this post for a while. I am wondering about something. What do you plan to do with this presentation to your children of the genealogy of Jesus in the OT? I think that you only needed the genealogy of Jesus as a part of what you were trying to teach them about the conquest and Judges. A next question I have; is it necessary to prove that the genealogy is historically correct as to how many generations spanned a certain time period? Is this information central to the main point, or points you intend to make to the children about the period of conquest and Judges? I have two scriptures I considered about this aspect of what you originally needed an answer to in seeing another post that commented on discussions like this one. 2 Timothy 3:16, 17 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, eqquipped for every good work. There is no such thing as a scripture that does not have an application. 1 Timothy 1:4 Nor to pay attention to myths and genealogies, which give rise to mere speculation rather than furthering the administration of God which is by faith. Specualtion about genealogies is fruitless and does not further the administration of God. We may not be able to ever resolve what apparent gaps or "textual problems" that arise. The answer to those things may not yeild an application that you could get out of such texts. The answers to those thing may resolve accademic problems that can have real merit in a Bible Study if the mystery unravels. The accurate recording of the genealogies of Jesus prove that Jesus came from the line of David - God's word came true that David would have an eternal heir on the throne! The interpretation of genealogies about Jesus would be Jesus is the eternal king as God. The application would be He is worthy of worship. Is there really any need to proove the accuracy of the time line to get there? Do we really need to have answers to genealogies to teach that? I leave you as the father who decides what is appropriate to teach his children about God and the Bilble to decide such things. I could not infringe on your right to do what you see fit and tell you that your question is "unprofitable", or "innapropriate", or that it "is not about the more important things of faith". Only you know what your intention was in trying to provide proof of what the Bible says, by using the Bible, for your children. I judge no one here, I offer no opinion here that anyone was wrong for this question, or any other post, or note. I pray to offend no one. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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85 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207176 | ||
Jim Estes You were addressing Doc, but I would like to jump in, although I wouldn't presume to answer for Doc or anyone else.:-) When we consider Sola Scriptura there is a tendency to think in term of Scripture first and only Scripture should interpret Scripture. Your post here got me to thinking about this important doctrine and how we use it. I while ago there was another post, unrelated to this whole branch, in which it came up that there are different ways to go about getting an interpretation. Don't worry, I am coming back to your point with this. The discussion started one place and got off onto styles of interpretation. That post and this one got me, as I say thinking about how we use Sola Scriptura. The "Great Divines" as some like to call them, at least the ones some Christians pay attention to, sat down and studied according to the doctrine of Sola Scriptura. They spent laborious amounts of time pouring over all the various aspects of Bible Study using exegesis. They came to the conclusions they came to about what scripture is saying to all of us by various methods of interpretation. Many of them agree about a great number of things. I have a theory for you without attempting to speak for anyone, including myself. When so many theologians have studied a topic, a passage, a book, a doctrine, and all come to the same conclusion, it is seen by a great many individuals picking up their works and reading them that they have hit upon the truth. Numbers of people believing the same thing does not make it true. However, there is only one true interpretation of any part of the Bible, there are not two, or three. "Authorities external to the Scriptures" they may be, but they may have studied these scriptures to a high degree that some of us are not capable of, or would not have the time for, and have all come to the same conclusion about the same thing. Now, all that was not in defense of anyone, or anything, but just a careful observation of these "Great Divines". I myself have found I disagree strongly with them, regardless of the numbers of them that have said, this, or that because in studying for myself and arriving at a different conclusion, I could not agree. And after talking to people outside of here, whose credentials I will not get into, they aslo did not agree. So, don't get me wrong, because I have, even in here, disagreed with the findings of the "Great Divines". You are not looking for sympathy, and I don't offer any. I do see your point. I aslo see that there is a different way to view what constitutes adherence to Sola Scriptura than to say that "authorities and doctrines" are acting or are having views outside the "authority of scripture". This is just my humble opinion and is not to put anybody down, or to act like it is my job to solve some apparent difference between two people, or to push my views on you. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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86 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207226 | ||
Jim Estes I would like to see if it would be possbible to look at this from a diferrent angle. Let's please put down the "Great Divines" as part of the discussion just for a minute. The Bible is the plenary inspired word of God - every word is not dictated to the writers word for word, but the actual words themselves are the scriptures God-breathed by God the author. 2 Peter 1:20 and 2 Timothy 3:16. That being said we have three New Testament writers speaking about Rahab the Harlot. Mathew 1:5 says Rahab is in Jesus lineage. Hebrews 11:13 says Rahab the Harolt had faith. James 2:25 says Rahab was justified by her works. All three writers are referring to a Rahab from the OT, and there is only one Rahab in the OT. The word Rahab appears as Rachab in the OT in Joshua, with a "c" in the Hebrew. The word Rahab appears in Hebrews and James as Rhaab borrowed from the Septuagint. The word Rahab appears in Mathew as Rhachab with an "h" and a "c", and is a derivative of the Hebrew Rachab, and is not from the Septuagint. The translators settled on Rahab for all texts. The time lines may not be something we can ever resolve. There are mysteries in the Bible, they belong to God. Both Rahab and Ruth took the God of the Hebrews to be thier God, nowhere does it say they went back to paganism. Why can it not be that they converted to Judaism and are therefore truly Jews? Paul says being Jewish is a circumsion of the heart, on that basis alone, they qualify to be in Jesus lineage - by God's sovereign will. This is just my humble opinion. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler We may not have to place our trust in the Great Divines, but we can place our trust in the same thing they did, the authority of the Bible - Sola Scriptura. |
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87 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | bowler | 207231 | ||
Doc I went back to see what we were discussing. I would be happy to hear from you or Val, whoever that saint is, or anyone else on inductive study methods for post #207078.:-) I don't believe I heard you correctly! Ponificate, Pontificate? Oh, no, no, no! That is not how I view people who carefully state what they beleive in graceful terms! No matter how many times, as long as they do not apply gracefulness to the art of "graceful" insult! Let the Liberty of Christ prevail here, I am open to discussion! Now, about what you are saying in this last post Doc you made further up the branch - That there are things you do not agree with from some of the great theologians. In the instance of John Calvin for instance I happen to agree with you. In a totaly irrelevant post to this one I tried nicely as I could to differentiate between quoting the direct source theologians and quoting those who have derived creeds. That those who have made creeds whose work has partialy depended on the original source, I usually have no problem with depending on the creed. It is the source theologian's original unchanged, uninterpreted work that I often find some trouble with. Like elements of Luther's Small and Great Catechism, like the parts of the content of John Calvin's Institutes in addressing the heretics. Each has elements that show certain beliefs I cannot hold. I agree with you in this branch that the whole line of "Great Divines" have gotten this one right. If Mathew and Hebrews and James are all talking about the only Rahab that exists in the OT, then it can be none other than the Harlot. I will post you about inductive study and such in the appropriate post. I look forward to hearing from you about it. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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88 | Repentance is Sorry or Walk From Sin? | Matt 3:8 | bowler | 206749 | ||
How far does repentance go? How active is repentance is it saying sorry and meaning it and moving into Godly living, or is it possible to say it and keep staying in a sinful situation becuase life would be much easier to live? This may seem like a weak question, but I have real pause to wonder what others think about this important issue as of late. blessings abound, bowler |
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89 | Repentance is Sorry or Walk From Sin? | Matt 3:8 | bowler | 206810 | ||
Jayell I agree with you one hundred percent on this issue. What I have been running across is the practice of turning around from sins that are easy to walk away from by some, but these same some won't walk away from a sin that requires a drastic and devasting life style change becuase they would lose way too much in the process. Acts 26:20c to the Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God, preforming deeds apporpriate to repentance. Yes repentance requires picking up and walking away from sin to "turn around" and have a "change of mind" - you can't repent and then stay in the same sinful situation and be said to have truly repented until you "change your mind and walk away from sin". I wonder how else thinks something? I am open to different understandings than my own. blessings abound, bowler |
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90 | Repentance is Sorry or Walk From Sin? | Matt 3:8 | bowler | 206811 | ||
Steve Thank you for the reccomendation of that book there I will endeavor to purshase it. I am realy wondering how people who have made life style choices, however legal they may be, can continue in them and actualy believe they have "repented and redicated" their lives to God, when in fact the choices they made are legal, but not lining up with the word of God? blessings abound, bowler |
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91 | What is the relationship for the poor in | Matt 5:11 | bowler | 207508 | ||
Dcmartin Please take the time to say what you do not understand about the answers you have already been given. This way someone could try to help you understand whatever it is you still do not understand. Just posting the same question again without saying why you don't understand the answers you have been given may not get you any new kind of answers. See if you can come up with a question to the answer that I am going to give you again, and when you post it choose "note". "The poor in spirit who are saved go to the kingdom of heaven, that is it, that is the relationship." I would add again, now trying to be simpler - The poor in spirit suffer because they are followers of Jesus, but is because they are saved that they are going to heaven - that is the nature and reason they "poor in spirit go to heaven" because they are saved. Just because people are poor in spirit does not mean they automatically go to heaven - they have to be saved. blessings abound |
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92 | poor in spirit | Matt 5:12 | bowler | 207501 | ||
Dcmartin This is a Quote; http://www.biblebb.com/files/MAC/sg2198.htm John MacArthur Matthew 5:3 says, "Blessed are the poor in spirit; for theirs is the kingdom of heaven." I. WHY MUST A CHRISTIAN BE POOR IN SPIRIT? A. Humility Leads to a Right Knowledge of Self In the Beatitudes Christ spoke of a new standard of living. Being poor in spirit is a fundamental characteristic of a Christian. No one will enter Christ's kingdom on the basis of pride--the doorway into the kingdom is very low and must be crawled through. The sooner we realize we are incapable of attaining the standard Christ calls us to (Matt. 5:48), the closer we are to finding the One who can help us attain that standard. That calls for humility. Jesus was saying, "You can't be filled until you are empty. You can't be worthwhile until you realize you are worthless apart from Christ." In the church today there is little emphasis on self- emptying. I've seen many books on how to be filled with joy and other things, but I don't think I've ever seen a book on how to empty yourself of self. Too much of contemporary Christianity feeds on pride. But a person without poverty of spirit fails to understand the grace of God and cannot be a Christian since salvation is by grace through faith. Also, the graces of the Christian life can't grow without humility. A person that is living for Christ according the this passage down in verse 11 is marked as being persecuted for being a Christian. If you give up everything in this life that does not line up with God's holy world, that would be a whole lot of things and people too. When you do that you may end up "poor in spirit", sad, discouraged, humble, suffering because you chose to follow Jesus instead of being in love with the things of the world. Not everyone would agree with this concept, however, we are to imitate Christ. Christ was a man of many sorrows, He suffered for God and for us, He did not love the ease of life in this world, He was homeless, He cried out to God. If we are going to imitate Christ, we must "pick up our cross and follow Him". Christians are called to suffer and before we will be able to rejoice at that suffering there will first be tears and hurt and true loss. That is what a person can do to that "she can have that poor in spirit". The relationship of those who are saved, that is key, those who are saved, who are poor in spirit, who suffer, with the kingdom of heaven is that they will go there. The poor in spirit who are saved go to the kingdom of heaven, that is it, that is the relationship. Hope this helps. Mathew 5:11 Blessed are you when people insult you and persecute you, and falsely say all kinds of evil against you becuase of Me. blessings abound, bowler |
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93 | what is a response to the interpretation | Matt 5:17 | bowler | 206838 | ||
tachminite 1) Communal living based on Acts 4:32-36 - Acts 4:34, 35 - the owners of land and house came to the apostles and laid down the money gotten from selling these things at the feet of the apostles for those that had need and it was distributed to those who had need. These sales do not necessarily mean they gave up their own houses, these people may have had extra houses and extra land. 2 John 1:10 - a lady had her own house and was told to refuse false teachers to stay in her home. She lived there with her children and entertained traveling Christians strangers. Acts 2:44-46 - they shared all their the sales of their property and possessions and were together going from house to house eating and worshipping. I found another alternate transliteration of the Greek - 44, 45 Everyone believed having faith beside together present had needs the occasion of destitution requiring that all commonly share the distribution from employment as the occasion arose. Every man whose possession was sold goods was required to part with them to every man through occaision of destitution. This renders it not that they shared all things in common, but that they all shared in the distribution as the occassion arose. 2) Adherence to OT rules versus NT freedom from the law - Romans 4:1-8, 13-16 - God has always justified by faith and not by the law. Romans 3) Ignoring NT commandments based on Galatians 5:1 - 1 Crointhians 6:9-11, Ephesians 2:1-4, 5:1-18, 1 John 1:5-2:2, James 2:18-23. 4) Pagans mistakenly think Christ instituted Cannibalism based on John 6:53 - This is as close as I could come to cannabalism and Rome - Direct quote - http: double front slash ajwrb.org single front slash history front single front slash index.shtml Early Christians abstained from eating any sort of blood. In this regard Tertullian (c. 155-a. 220 C.E.) pointed out in his work Apology (IX, 13, 14): "Let your error blush before the Christians, for we do not include even animals’ blood in our natural diet. We abstain on that account from things strangled or that die of themselves, that we may not in any way be polluted by blood, even if it is buried in the meat. Finally, when you are testing Christians, you offer them sausages full of blood; you are thoroughly well aware, of course, that among them it is forbidden; but you want to make them transgress." Minucius Felix, a Roman lawyer who lived until about 250 C.E., made the same point, writing: "For us it is not permissible either to see or to hear of human slaughter; we have such a shrinking from human blood that at our meals we avoid the blood of animals used for food."Octavius, XXX, 6." (Insight on the Scriptures, 1988, vol. 1, p. 346) Argument that Christians might have given Roman pagans? John 6:35-40 - the Bread of Life - this is the key that Jesus describes Himself as the way to salvation using figurative language - just like when Jesus says "I am the door", when Jesus says, "I am the Bread, eat My flesh, drink My blood" this is figurative language. Jesus is not a door, or bread, or drink - He is saying He is salvation and eating His flesh represents His body dying on the cross for our sins, and drinking His blood represents Jesus shedding His blood for our sins. Jesus is saying take My body, take My blood - believe in My and take salvation. That would be the argument for any age it seems to me. blessings abound, bowler |
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94 | Do i always have to ask for forgiveness? | Matt 5:23 | bowler | 207922 | ||
Mathew 5:23, 24 Therefore if you are presenting your offering at the altar, and there remember that your brother has something against you, leave your offering there before the altar and go; first be reconciled to your brother, and then come and present your offering. blessings abound bowler |
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95 | Divorced, Am I going to hell? | Matt 5:32 | bowler | 206737 | ||
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96 | Lead us not | Matt 6:13 | bowler | 206585 | ||
thaylon Where it says in Mathew 6:13 the words "lead us not into tempatation" there are three ways to translate the Greek word that means tempation. In Acts 20:19 Paul uses the same Greek word as "trials" - in effect saying how he served the Lord and endured "trials", the same word as "temptation". Then there is Hebrwes 3:8 - Israel provoked God in the time of their "trials". The most interesting though it James 1:2, and 1:12 - some bibles say that "consider it all joy when you encounter various "trials". And then "blessed is the man who persevers under trial". Other Bibles say "consider it all joy when you encounter various "temptations"", and then "blessed is a man who persevers in "temptation". The word "temptation" in Mathew 6:13 can actually be "trials", or "proving", according to the Strong's Concordance. That would render this verse "and do not lead us into "testing, or trials, or prooving", but deliver us from evil. Remember that God is capable of temtpting no one as He has absolutely no guile, no deceit? Then this verse can't be talking about God "leading, or not leading into tempatation", only the devil leads anyone "into temptation". This part of the prayer is about asking God not to lead us into trials and testings and proovings. According to other parts of the NT we will be led into testing and prooving and through trials and it will be for our good, to improve our character. But Jesus is plainly telling us to ask not to be led by God into these things, but to deliver us from evil. We get tested and tried by evil circumstances that are allowed by God to happen to us, and these are places where we can stand or fall in the faith. What Jesus is asking is of wisdom, to ask not to be led to places where we might fail the test of faith by God. Another thing to note is that this is part of the body of the prayer - The prayer as a model starts with worship of God, then moves to asking for His kingdom to come, which is praying in accordance with His will, then the prayer moves to things we need. Notice the simplicity of the needs, the need for daily food, the need to forgive and thereby be forgiven, and then a plea not to be led to place where our faith will stumble. Then the end where there is more worship. I admire what you are doing, you are obviously taking years to prayer through one portion of scripture and living it out. How many of us really do that? Scripture should be prayed through and lived out, not just studied for fun. blessings abound, bowler |
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97 | will most people go to hell? | Matt 7:14 | bowler | 206547 | ||
docandlinda2 Doc makes a good point there in that commentary that the road to destruction is an easier trek, sin feels good or no one would be doign it, and it entangles the lost on the broad road to hell. The call to be saved goes out to many, but one few get in because only a few get called out of sin. We can't get out of sin on our own steam, we need help to even choose to get out. Mathew 22:14 For many are called, but few are chosen. This is another indicator that most people will not go to heaven, not only as in your verse, where the majority trod the broad road on their own choice to hell, but only a few will get called off the road and be placed on the narrow path to heaven. blessings abound, bowler |
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98 | will most people go to hell? | Matt 7:14 | bowler | 206578 | ||
Immanuelsown I am a bit confused here. God does elect only some out of all whom He has given the offer to. There is the call - the few out of the many (Mathew 7:13, 14) who receive the offer get called. Calling is the result of election - election is God deciding who gets choosen, and calling is God sending the Holy Spirit out to convict the hearts of those whom God has elected. There is the general call to "all", the proclaimation of the gospel of Jesus Christ atoning death for sins. Then there is the "effectual call" which is given only to the "elect" to persuade them to accept the offer by means of the Holy Spirit working. According to Jesus in both the verse about "narrow is the way" and "many are called, but few are chosen" both are true and are therefore not in disparity to one another. It is not that in the 2 Peter 3:9 and 1 Timothy 2:4 verses that because God doesn't want people to perish they won't, it is that God has done something we cannot comprehend - has both said that He "wills" for all to be saved (that is what the Greek word really is in the Peter passage, and not "wish"), and that of the many only few are called. God cannot be in conflict with Himself, but this is one of those instances in which it is impossible for us to understand how both things, which from this side of finiteness, seem to be opposing, are to God not opposite, but facets of His will. God says in several places in the Bible that He has sorrow over the lost and is not happy about their destrction. But that hits on a different aspect of Him - He is Holy and requires justice for sin in the form of payment - death and eternal damnation. His holiness also requires that His love offer a way out to all. His holiness also requires that due to His mercy some will be fully persuaded to take the offer made to all, or else none would be saved. We forget too often that He has no need or reason to save any, but that He chooses to save some, and according to Him, that will not be the many who go to hell, but the few that make it to heaven. Everyone does make a choice, but God has the power to infuence that choice. God having decided who will choose Him does not relieve us of the responsibility or the right to choose, but it does place a limits on our power to choose, and our choosing does not prompt Him to choose us, but His prompting results in us choosing Him. He has the power, we do not. That is why I made such a big issue of the Sovereignty of God in the choice portion of what I wrote. If God chose us from before the foundation of the world to be saved, could we by our choice, having been chosen, abort His will? The answer is an emphatic NO. Some see this as patently unfair. I have an answer for them - Job 38 - 41 - basically who is it that thinks they can question God's decisions to do anything, seeing as how God has created everyting and owns evertything and is the only righteous ONE? (Which is the sin Job repents of.) We would like to try to understand how God's mind works and we attempt to juxtapose one part of His decision making process against another, when both are clearly in scripture as truth, because we fail as finite creatures to understand the infinite mind of God. Happy discerning of God! Go for it! You will never arrive in an eternity! blessings abound, bowler |
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99 | do some Christians not make heaven? | Matt 7:21 | bowler | 206546 | ||
docandlinda2 As your verse indicates those who do the will of the Father make into heaven. Look what John says - 1 John 3:6 No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him. That is one side of the coin. Here is another side of the coin from the same book - 1 John 2:2 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father Jesus Christ the righteous. Those two verses together mean you are not of God if you "continually" sin, but if you do sin, turn around and ask the "Advocate" for forgiveness and stop sinning. Here is another coin - First side - Romans 7:19 For the good that I want, I do not do, but I practice the very evil that I do not want. But if I am doing the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me. Second side - Romans 8:1 - 4 Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us; who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. Here is a principle - Romans 3:28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. Nothing else is required to be saved other than faith in Jesus Christ that He died and rose again for our sins and that He is Lord, by this we are saved. But here is the opposite side of that same coin of a qualifying faith. James 2:18 But someone may will say, You have faith and I have works; show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by my works. This sounds on the surface as that true faith in Jesus is faith by works. Now, the principle in this James passage is not that faith is gained by works, but that, faith is evidenced by good works as fruit of that faith being genuine faith. Jesus said, by their fruits you will know them; the bad tree has bad fruit and the good tree has good fruit, and only those who do the works of My Father will enter heaven. It is not true that if you are converted and believe in Jesus that you will just have a full understandig of the will of the Father. That takes a life time of prayer, study, worship, and praise to understand the will of the Father and to be able to do it. The Holy Spirit sanctifies us to do the will of the Father, understand the will of the Father in order to do it. Sanctification is a life time work of the Holy Spirit in the believer - Read Romans chapter 6, which is about sanctification, and chapter 8, which is about christian perseverance in the faith. To directly answer your question all "true" Christians make it to heaven - once saved always saved, by faith alone, by grace alone. There are going to be "false brethren" who say that they believe, but do not and will not. But you and I cannot say with any certainty at all who these are, only God knows. There will be some very "pious Christians" who appear to have the right goods who merely walk through life doing "good works" who will not make it in because they never repented and took Jesus as Lord. They went to church all their lives and think they are saved and work in the church doing all kinds of things. There are others who do not appear from their behavior or life to be "true" Christians, they seem to be always messing up big time, but God knows who are really His, and these "mess ups" will indeed go to heaven based on faith alone, by grace alone. These "mess ups" keep on asking for forgiveness of sins all the time and truly have salvation, but they are not all the way cleaned up by the Holy Spirit. Their character needs work, their very lives need work, and the devil is fighting hard to keep them out of heaven, and the devil may win a whole lot of battle, over these folks, but God will win the war. What we are called to do is to look to our own salvation with great fear and trembling and to examine ourselves to see if indeed we ourselves are in the faith. What we are not called to do is to examine others to see if they are in the faith and look to whether or not they are truly saved, that is God's business. We are suppossed to love our brethren and our enemies as well. There is a verse that says that those who jduge others have become judges of the law and not doers of the law. This is no accusation of your motives in asking this question though, please don't be offended by what I have written. blessings abound, bowler |
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100 | Why God bless a Roman soldier over a Jew | Matt 8:6 | bowler | 206375 | ||
PRAZINGOD Mathew 7:28, 29 is the end of the Sermon on the Mount which was preached to the Jews, a huge number of Jews. Mathew 8:5, 6 was Jesus blessing one Centurion, but there is no juxtaposition in Mathew 8:5, 6 bewtween Jesus blessing a Centurion and Jesus blessing the Jews. In fact Jesus had just finished healing a Jew in Mathew 8:1-4. In one instance Jesus heals man requesting to be made clean, in the other instance Jesus heals a Centurion's servant without even going to the Centurion's home because the Centurion had great faith. But that is not Jesus blessing one above another it is just different circumstances. blessings abound, bowler |
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