Results 121 - 140 of 292
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: bowler Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | Jesus Speaking of Unbelievers? | Matt 25:35 | bowler | 207075 | ||
Doc Thank you. I think I was unclear. I mean was Jesus referring to the ones in prison as being believers or unbelievers? Rather than who He was speaking to. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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122 | Mark 2;21,22? | Mark 2:21 | bowler | 207065 | ||
Jesus Keeps Me I do believe Jesus is talking to the Pharisees about why the disciples did not fast. Jesus is using an illustration to tell them that because Jesus is with them there is no need to fast by talking about new patches of cloth in old garments and about putting new wine into old wine skins. The old covenant required fasting, the new covenant is Jesus. There was no need for the disciples to observe old laws, when a new covenant of grace was with them, it was time to do things differently. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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123 | Mark 2;21,22? | Mark 2:21 | bowler | 207083 | ||
Doc Help my understand you better about the establishment of the kingdom of God now being through the church, and how that might be different from the new covenant of Jesus (the way in which people are now going to be in a relationship with God)? I don't think you are wrong and I am right only I am trying to see what you mean about the church. There was no church yet. John the Baptist, his followers and the Pharisees were all fasting, maybe it was Yom Kippur? :-) Seriously how about Sabbath day fasting, "you shall do no work?" Exodus 31:15, as the law? So they would have to fast? Could it be that verses 18-22 are part of the same day as verses 23-28, the Sabbath day? I could be very wrong? Brain teaser - why were the disciples of John and the Pharisees fasting? Or were they? In Luke it does not say they were, it says that they often did so maybe it wasn't the Sabbath? So many questions. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler In Leviticus 23:27 "humble, or afflict yourselves" refers to fasting? |
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124 | Jesus and Children as Paedobaptism? | Mark 10:14 | bowler | 207282 | ||
I am confused about something. Here we have Jesus saying do not hinder the children from coming to Him. If I am not mistaken Jesus was referring to more than just children coming to sit on His lap, or get a hug. He seems to be saying, that children, at least in His day, were receiving the kingdom of God, were getting saved? How come then, we now do not permit children to be baptized? Is this why there were "forms of Paedopabtism", practiced by some of the Great Divines, or no that is not why they did it? Is it that children who really, truly exhibit in their own words a true understanding that they are sinners who need repentance is what Jesus meant? And did that later get stretched out of the context He had about children coming into the kingdom as Paedopabtims? Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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125 | Jesus and Children as Paedobaptism? | Mark 10:14 | bowler | 207374 | ||
Steve I am curious then, what is the "passage", which is only a segment of three verses dealing with primarly? Ephesians 4:3 Being diligent to preserve the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace. bowler, blessings abound |
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126 | Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 | Mark 15:34 | bowler | 206316 | ||
biblesawyer I looked this up and what you are looking at here is called the Hypostatic nature of Jesus Christ as being fully God and fully man. Hypostatic means constituting a distinct personal being or substance and theologicaly one of the three real and disinct substances in the one undivded essence of God and the one personality of Christ in which His two natures human and divine are united. It is the last one which you are dealing with here. Here is what I found by reading more than a few theologians, I will not quote, it is too long, I will summarize what I found. Some heresies about the nature of Christ - Docetism - Jesus only appeared as a man, he wasn't really one. God could not become material because material is evil. Nestorianism - Jesus was two separate persons. Eutychianism - Jesus was not fully human and not fully divine but had one single mixed nature. Kenosis - Jesus gave up some of His attributes when He became a man, contradicted by Colossians 2:9 For in Him all the fullness of deity dwells in bodily form. Orthodox Hypostatic Union - 1 Timothy 3:15 By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness; He who was revealed in the flesh, was indicated in the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory. The premise they take away is that in the union of the two natures although they were separate the did not operate separately, didn't act as human sometimes and as God other times. Christ became fully human being a real man, but He was still fully God but decided not to have an independant use of His attributes as God without actually giving up those attributes. Example - Mark 9:21 and Mark 13:32 - here although He was fully God with the attributes of God He chose as fully human not to excersize His powers as fully God to know certain things. But we can't understand this by viewing the traditional concept of what humanity is because Christ was the ultimate human who experienced all of being human with pain, sorrow, loss, separation from God the Father, and death, but without sin. Although Christ cried out "why have you forsaken Me?" and was suffering the physcial sufferings of a human as fully human and He was still fully God, as the Son of God who is God. Having never been separated from God as being God or being human, He experienced a temporary separation from God as human and God in order to bear our sin as fully human and fully God. If He stopped being fully God on the cross then He does not have the power to save sins, if He stopped being man on the cross then He is not the perfect sacrfice for sins. He had to keep on being both, or we were still lost in our sins forever. See Philippians 2:6-8 about this as well as Colossians 2:9-12 these two verses together show what Christ did in coming as a man, but remaining as God. blessings abound, bowler |
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127 | Lead us not | Luke 5:18 | bowler | 206588 | ||
AllenRhoades Confused a bit here - the word for deliver in both the Luke and the Mathew passages is eisphero - deliver, lead into, or carry inward. Sorry, but to my knowledge there is no such Greek word as eisengkas? I am trying to see "introduce"? 1 Timothy 6:7? No such animals. No offense to you at all though. blessings abound, bowler |
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128 | Lead us not | Luke 5:18 | bowler | 206626 | ||
Moran61 Well thank you very much for that! I went looking through a tool I have that shows all the places a Greek word is used and that word did not show up at all, now I am wondering why. Nothing beats actualy going somewhere for about three to four years to learn the language thoroughly which I do not have time to do, so thank you Jesus, that you did. No tool is going to beat knowing the ins and outs of Greek though. http://www.greekbiblestudy.org/gnt/greekWordStudy.do?id equal sign 112981 and sign greek equal sign false Let he who has been taught share with him who teaches. Thanks. blessings abound, bowler |
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129 | Lead us not | Luke 5:18 | bowler | 206644 | ||
AllenRhoades I apologize for not getting back to you again sooner. Yeah without a book is pretty amazing isn't it? Next time I will not assume my little tools have all the answers! I really am thinking about trying to find the time to study this language though because I get frustrated sometimes that I do not know more about how it really works. Please enlighten me, LSJ? Which tool is this, I am always collecting a new tool in the hopes of learning more. Is this tool going to be over my head? Please advise. The reason I would be most eager to have such a tool is that from what you are saying it will have a listing of Greek sources that are Extra-Biblical? That is most important, to find out how other authors were using the same words in other concurrect literature. Off this subject, I am currently seeking the usage of several Greek words for an off line discussion I am having about their Biblical and Extra-Biblical usages. Again, I would like to know what tool this is please. I see what you mean about the "fit" with 1 Timothy 6:7. There is room in the body of Christ for a diversity of gifts, I am likin yours. blessings abound, bowler |
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130 | Lead us not | Luke 5:18 | bowler | 206744 | ||
Allen Rhoades Oh God bless your soul Pastor! Thank you Thank you very much. It looks like it is going to take some doing to navigate around this site, but it will be worth the travel. I shared this with another Pastor in here for sharing his Greek with me, I am sure you already have this - http://www.greekbiblestudy.org/gnt/greekWordStudy.do?id equal sign 112981 and sign greek equal sign false The one who is taught the word is to share all good things with the one who teaches him. My apologies by the way for saying there was no Greek word Eisengkas! blessings abound, bowler |
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131 | Why Luke 6:20 they ommited the word sipr | Luke 6:20 | bowler | 207447 | ||
Dcmartin Mathew makes a point of speaking of the spiritual state of those who suffer for the sake of Christ down in verses 11 and 12 as to why he recounted verses 1 through 10. 1 through 10 are all spiritual states of the oppressed who will suffer for His sake. Mathew makes a point of talking about who will suffer for the sake of Christ; the poor in spirit, those who mourn, the gentle, those who hunger for righteousness sake, the merciful, the pure in heart, the peacemakers, the persecuted - he is making statements about spiritual people doing spiritual things. Luke makes different points. Luke contrasts the physically oppressed to those who are rich and happy; the poor, the hungry, the ostracized, the insulted, the scorned - in other words the outcasts, the oppressed by society. The contrast he makes are largely down in verses 27 through 38 of those who "hear" the word of God and recieve it and those who do not who swindle the poor and abuse them. The reward in Mathew is in heaven and is great. the reward in Luke is great and is to be sons of the most high. They are both talking about the same event from different points of view. It is like when two people go to the same birthday party and go tell different groups of friends two stories about the same event. One person talks about what stood out to him as important, and the other person talks about what stood out to him as important. The stories have some of the same exact elements in them, and some different ones too, but they do not contradict one another, or ommit anything, it is just different aspects of the same story. Hope this helps. Luke 6:27 But I say to you who hear, love our enemies, do good to those who hate you. blessings abound, bowler |
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132 | What does Mathew 5:3 and Luke 6:20 means | Luke 6:20 | bowler | 207467 | ||
Dcmartin I was looking backthrough your other questions on these passages to try to see what exactly you were asking. I see now that you were asking three different questions. I apologize for labeling one of then as a duplicate, as it was not. So now you want to know what each of the two verses in question mean standing alone, rather than what poor in spirit means, or why Luke leaves out the word spirit. I believe based on the surrounding verses in Mathew that Mathew is saying in your first verse that; those whose spirit's are sorrowfull, are sad, who are downcast in spirit, who are suffering spiritualy - these have been promised the kingdom of heaven, salvation is theirs, the will go to heaven. But all this is based on verse 11, that these poor in spirit are with Jesus, believe in Jesus, are persecuted for Jesus. I believe that based on the surrounding verses in Luke that; it means those who are poor in this world, those who have not, those who do without, those who live in poverty - these all have the kingdom of God, have salvation, will go to heaven. But this promise is granted to them because of verse 27, those who hear, who have the word of God in them, those who are saved, and based on verse 28 these same are persectuted for believing in Jesus. The way Mathew describes the suffering believer is saying that the believer has a spiritual state and that because of that will be blessed. The way Luke describes the suffering believer is saying that the believer has a state of poverty in this world and that the believer will recieve a different state of being - one in heaven. The broad idea of Mathew is that the Kingdom of the Son of God has come. The smaller idea in just that portioin of that chapter of Mathew is that the righteousness of the believer will be rewarded in the face of persecution. The broad ideas of Luke are that Jesus is the Son of God, Jesus has compassion on all the outcast groups; the ill, the women, the poor, the Samaritans, the sinners, the tax collectors and so on, and that Jesus is the savior. The smaller idea of that portion of Luke you are intereseted in is Jesus has compassion on the outcasts and the righteousness of those who believe. Luke 6:31 Treat others the same way you want them to treat you. blessings abound, bowler |
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133 | WHAT MADE LOT A RIGHTIOUS MAN? | Luke 8:13 | bowler | 206386 | ||
GBzones We are so much like Lot! We often go the wrong way into trouble spots and it is God who plucks us out! By faith, by listening to God when He does speak, as Lot did when God sent His angels to tell Lot to come out. Which according to you, not fighting here just pointing out, he did not, but according to the account he did come out. Abraham made a few major mistakes himself concerning God and his wife, but like Lot, despite his mistakes, it is the example of faith of both men that we emulate, not either of their mess ups. God bless you in whatever you endeavor to do for Christ Jesus here, or anywhere. blessings abound, bowler |
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134 | Why Could He Not Do Many Miracles? | Luke 9:42 | bowler | 207043 | ||
I have been pondering about the following - There are a number of instances where Jesus healed people who did not necessarily exhibt faith from what we could tell by what was written. That is not to say definitively that they did not have faith, we just don't know for sure. Some instances where Jesus Heals - Mathew 4:24, 8:16, 17, 12:15 – 21, 12:22, 14:14, 15:30, 19:2, 19:14, 21:14, Luke 5:15, 9:42, 22:51, John 5:1 - 9. Here are some instances where Jesus healed those who it was written did have faith and were healed - Mathew 8:8, 9:2-8, 15:22 – 28, Mark 10:47-52, Luke 7:44-48, 17:17-19, Here is my question - Why is it that Jesus did not do many miracles at Nazareth because of their unbelief? Mathew 13:58 And He did not do many miracles there because of their unbelief. I can see that the context is that "they" were saying that He was a local with family there, but they admit that He was doing the miracles, but then they took offense at Him. Seeing as how Jesus did miracles of healing when around the unbelieving Pharisees and Scribes and Sadducees, I am trying to understnad why it made a difference there at Nazareth that they were full of unbelief? Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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135 | Why Could He Not Do Many Miracles? | Luke 9:42 | bowler | 207133 | ||
Steve I pray to the Lord my God not to get people to wrangling about my questions, God forbid! I understand your concern here, in seeing it as you see it I could wish I had phrased it much better, because as you so succinctly point out the wording is causing, well it is causing. I did try to include the following scriptures as part of my question, they are all instances where "apparently" He healed and we don't know who had faith and who did not. Mathew 4:24, 8:16, 17, 12:15 – 21, 12:22, 14:14, 15:30, 19:2, 19:14, 21:14, Luke 5:15, 9:42, 22:51, John 5:1 - 9. I get what you are saying here - we should just take it at scripture value that the Lord Jesus made judgment call and that He said it was because of their unbelief, not that "He couldn't". Bad wording. What I was seeing looking at all those other scriptures is a lack of evidence that those crowds and groups had faith, there are instances there where He is definitely dealing with lookers on who had no faith. We know Jesus power came from being God, and not from mass hysteria, or from the recipients as if He needed something from them to accomplish anything. We have too many instances where demons were cast out, infirmities healed, and in none of them does He say their sins are forgiven, nor does the Bible say they had faith. I was trying to see what the difference was. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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136 | Why Could He Not Do Many Miracles? | Luke 9:42 | bowler | 207167 | ||
Azure With all due respect to you and your point the fact that it is a gift is not because "we would be pleased to accept a gift" and God does not give the "gift" to please us, but Himself. Paul - Romans 3:24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus. Romans 5:15-17 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of God of the one Man Jesus Christ, abound to the many. The gift is not like that which came throught the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from the one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification. For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who recieve the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One Jesus Christ. The gift of the grace of God, salvation, God was pleased to give - 1 Corinthians 1:21 For since in the wisdom fo God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well pleased throught the foolishness of the message preached to save those who beleive. Those who are repentant and seeking Christ for forgivness of sins and entrance into eternal life are receiving the free gift of God's grace - but it is not their reaching and receiving the gift that is the focus of the word "gift" as it appears in referrence to "grace" in the Bible. The focus is on what God is doing. When people humble themselves and come to Christ God will work on them through the Holy Spirit and they will come to understand the greatness of the "gift of grace" they have received. I completley agree with you that when we understand that we need grace our heart and mind will be changed. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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137 | Why Could He Not Do Many Miracles? | Luke 9:42 | bowler | 207168 | ||
BradK I do believe I have finally heard a really good answer to my orginal question in this post of yours. Everyone had excellent answers, however this does very much cover all the bases here - 1 Their unbelief was out of His hands. 2 He knew that they would not be profited by His continuance. 3 He Himself states that He was least received in His own home town, a place where it is likely He would have been willing to do much. I would not disparge the thoughts of all the others here, each of them contributed valuable insights. Thank you. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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138 | Why Could He Not Do Many Miracles? | Luke 9:42 | bowler | 207169 | ||
Immanuelsown Two things, how could we even begin to compare Benny Hinn and people's response to him to Jesus Christ and people's response to Him? I don't for one second think you are supporting Benny Hinn, far from it! I simply cringe at the two being used to illustrate a mode of response by anybody in the same sentence, which I realize is all you were trying to do. I would ask you, what you would do with some of the original scriptures I provided that dealt with individuals and not with the crowds? In these accounts Jesus healed them and they exhibited absolutely no faith, as oppossed to the other batch of scriptures I provided where those who were healed had faith. It is apparent regarding healing individuals from my first batch of scriptures that they had no faith, faith was not mentioned, was not a factor, and Jesus did not address it saying they had faith. So it is not true, I am not saying you said exactly so, that people got healed because they had faith and sought Jesus. He often walked up to them, healed them, finished and walked off and they did not get saved, or have faith. Just a thought. Just a worthless son. blessings aboung, bowler |
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139 | What Happened to The 70 Disciples? | Luke 10:1 | bowler | 207283 | ||
I am trying to understand what happened to the 70 disciples? I keep reading the Gospels but cannot get a grasp on if they stayed with Jesus, or left in John 6:60-66. Just a worthless son. blessings abound, bowler |
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140 | DOUBLE AND TRIPLE NEGATIVES OF NT | Luke 22:18 | bowler | 206986 | ||
Rolff I know very little about Greek, just simple word studied and a little more. I am assuming from your profile that you teach at a seminary, or work at one and teach students in a Bible study setting at night. I must admit to enjoying very much to trying to figure out what you meant. So I first went hunting on the web and came up with these two examples according to the information on the site - Hebrews 13:5 Luke 22:15-18 http://www.faithfulbible.com/ However, the site off course fails to explain why these two would qualify as being double or triple negatives. I like the few features of this site however, I bookmarked it. Now, I need to ask you to please teach me why these two examples qualify as double or triple negatives, if they really do, when in English and in Greek to English translations the English grammar "concpet" of what a double or triple negative is does not appear. Thanks. blessings abound, bowler |
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