Results 661 - 680 of 784
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Beja Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
661 | Resurrection Day or easter ? | 2 Tim 2:4 | Beja | 221692 | ||
Justme, Well, this is the type of question that their could be as many answers to as there are people, but I'll answer since it might interest you to hear from a pastor's perspective on it. Quite honestly there are many errors in our churches, some of them quite serious. Even a church who is officially doctrinally sound, deals with individuals who haven't grasped the half of it. Many of these things even regard issues of salvation. As I look at all I need to teach and to clarify as a pastor how does that compare to the issue you bring up? Easter to most Christians of any maturity whatsoever has nothing to do with any goddess of fertility, nor any pagan religion but rather is in fact celibrating the ressurection and we also happen to hunt easter eggs as well. With all the things I am preaching on, why would I start a huge squabble in the church over what we call the holiday, when they are all thinking of the right thing anyways? It is impacting no doctrine, it is worshiping no false deity, and it would not be to their edification to fight concerning what we call it. 2 Timothy 2:4 comes to my mind as I think about it. Hope this helps. In Christ, Beja |
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662 | 3 levels of christianity | 2 Tim 2:15 | Beja | 229054 | ||
Bnabirye, Here in about twenty minutes I am on my way to continue a class with the ladies in my church over the book of Ephesians. And I believe whole heartedly that one of the major points of the book is that there is only one level of Christianity. Eph 4:4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; Eph 4:5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, Eph 4:6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all. In Christ, Beja |
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663 | Advice and encouragement | 2 Tim 2:15 | Beja | 229482 | ||
Julco, Others have given you great advice, so I would simply like to give you a passage that might be encouraging to think about. Verse six especially. Php 1:3 I thank my God in all my remembrance of you, Php 1:4 always offering prayer with joy in my every prayer for you all, Php 1:5 in view of your participation in the gospel from the first day until now. Php 1:6 For I am confident of this very thing, that He who began a good work in you will perfect it until the day of Christ Jesus. In Christ, Beja |
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664 | Timothy of age 50 treated as a child | 2 Tim 2:22 | Beja | 241339 | ||
00123, Normally I would not answer a question unless I felt I had something worth contributing to its answer. But since your question has remained there for some time, I will instead point out the problems with the question. You assume 3 different things in the question which you have a burden of proving. 1. 2 Timothy was written in year 67 2. Timothy was born in year 17 3. Paul treats Timothy as an adolescent. You are asserting far more than most of your readers are likely willing to grant. It is hard to answer a question where you disagree with its presuppositions. I do not intend for this to come across as any kind of rebuke. I only mean to explain to you why I think no answer is forthcoming. In Christ, Beja |
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665 | Speculation? | 2 Tim 2:23 | Beja | 206767 | ||
1 Cor 4:6 says that you may learn not to exceed what is written. I feel like this verse is a little clearer on what this "foolish speculation" is. I understand it to be anything beyond what scripture reveals to us. This would include taking a topic further than scripture reveals to us. This is a problem for two main reasons that I can think of. 1. Leads to conflict within the church, because we don't have an answer and therefore we are extending ourselves onto guess work which people are going to disagree and argue about. 2. While many of us may enjoy trying to figure out such things, it is ultimately unprofitable for righteousness and knowing God, which is what our concern should be. Scripture has given us everything that we need for life and righteousness. Now, given all of this, I don't think it is always wrong for a couple of christians to discuss some brain twister. But two things should be kept in mind. It is for fun, and shouldn't be returned to the shelf in full awareness of its usefulness even IF we were to figure it out, and secondly that we should never bring it up in front of questions that don't have the level of maturity to handle it at such. I think anything beyond this is going into what Paul has warned us about. |
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666 | Speculation? | 2 Tim 2:23 | Beja | 206840 | ||
With regards to getting a wholistic view of scriptures take on a topic I'm in whole hearted agreement with you. This would be rather clear if we were dealing with any concrete examples. As was I was simply defining in the abstract what foolish speculation was since you had asked. Part of the wisdom of identifying such is knowing when you have indeed hit an end of what scripture has shown and when more study is required to understand what scripture has in fact revealed. With regards to the passage in 1 cor. I believe this to be the primary thing he is speaking of when he talks about "exceeding what is written." I don't want to get into a lengthy discussion on it but I'll try to in but a very few sentences at least give a hint of why I think so. I believe that the first 4 chapters of 1 Cor are all one long disertation on the factions that are going on in Corinth. Chapter one is the where the discussion over the "apollo" and "paul" factions begins. Paul's reasoning follows roughly this train of thought. You are boasting in men therefore you are arrogant and mistakenly think the wisdom of men are worthy of esteem. However, at the cross Christ made foolishness the wisdom of man and therefore men and their wisdom are worth nothing and therefore exalting them is foolishness and therefore your factions split among these mere men "appolos and paul" is stupidty. So in our passage in chapter four this has been his train of thought so we must understand as he is talking about these factions between these groups he has viewed a false worldly wisdom as the root of it all. Therefore the understanding I sugested regarding "exceeding what is written" makes perfect sense as the primary point he is trying to make. I'd rather not debate this as if you disagree we would be trying to hash out how to understand 4 full chapters of context which I'm not interested in doing over this medium. But I felt I did owe you at least a brief explination of my take on the passage. God bless, Beja |
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667 | scriptues for the falsely accused? | 2 Tim 3:12 | Beja | 225091 | ||
Is there any better illustration of what you just told him, and specifically regarding his particular question, than the story of Joseph found in Genesis? In Christ, Beja |
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668 | Film clips during service- appropriate?? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Beja | 230082 | ||
K. Long, I would not say that playing a video clip is never appropriate. For one example of when it would be wonderful is a missionary sending back some footage of what God is doing as a way of blessing the sending church. With regards to clips facilitating the sermon we must stop and really consider some principles. First, nothing is sinful inherently in a video (though the content might be.) But scripture teaches that it is the word of God that will both convert sinners and grow the saints. Consider Abraham's response to the rich man. Luk 16:27 "And he said, 'Then I beg you, father, that you send him to my father's house-- Luk 16:28 for I have five brothers--in order that he may warn them, so that they will not also come to this place of torment.' Luk 16:29 "But Abraham *said, 'They have Moses and the Prophets; let them hear them.' Luk 16:30 "But he said, 'No, father Abraham, but if someone goes to them from the dead, they will repent!' Luk 16:31 "But he said to him, 'If they do not listen to Moses and the Prophets, they will not be persuaded even if someone rises from the dead.'" So one concept that we must get through our skull is that what the church needs is not more clever teaching tools. Either the word of God is going to be sufficient or nothing is. Now within this principle that still leaves rooms for videos of other teachers explaining the word of God through video. A second problem with your particular case seems to be what is actually being studied. The way the human brain handles beliefs on the level of biology is, as you said, not the object of our study. But what is far worse is that scripture has already taught us a great deal about this very thing from a spritual level, a heart level. Scripture teaches us that sinful man would never repent and trust upon Christ without the operation of the Holy Sirit. 1Co 2:14 But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised. Joh 6:65 And He was saying, "For this reason I have said to you, that no one can come to Me unless it has been granted him from the Father." Your pastor ought to be teaching you a biblical perspective on these things, not science theories. Now, that being said your pastor may be doing a fine job. I don't know the context of this occurance and he might have been showing something for a decent reason. So to sum up, we must consider the place of video clips given that it is the word of God that produces faith (Romans 10:17), and that the word of God must be the object of our study. In Christ, Beja |
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669 | is the bible really came from GOD? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Beja | 241199 | ||
Patipati, This is meant to go together with the answer Ed gave you. Your answer ultimately lies in what previous people have called the "self attesting" nature of scripture. What they mean by that is that Scripture's divine authorship just sort of shines through it. As we read it, we become persuaded that it is indeed from God and not man. One good scripture depicting this is Jeremiah 23:25-29. Here God declares his own word to be self evidently different from the "dreams" of the prophets. Now we still rely upon God to give us the eyes to see the divine nature of scripture. Many read scripture and are left blind to its self evidence of being divinely inspired. So we completely depend upon God to graciously grant it, but at the same time, once it has been granted we declare the evidence to be the scripture itself, not something else. I hope this was helpful. In Christ, Beja |
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670 | Titus 1:8 the word "holy"? | Titus 1:8 | Beja | 243696 | ||
Justme, Hey. Good question. This isn't the normal greek word for holy. And it isn't the normal word Paul uses for holiness. So given that all words have a certain range of meaning, it can validly be translated into a few different english words. So I strongly suspect their motive in not using "holy," was to make it evident in english that this was a different word. Also, I have a set that compares greek words that convey similiar ideas side by side so that one can see what the distinct emphasis is in each word. If you are interested let me know and I'll see what the difference is between this word and the normal word for holiness, which is "hagios." Sorry, I don't know how to swap to greek font in this. Blessings, In Christ, Beja |
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671 | sharps rule of the article inTitus 2:13 | Titus 2:13 | Beja | 244010 | ||
ipl, Fine catch. The rule most certainly does apply to Titus 2:13. The only reason somebody might argue otherwise is that the rule doesn't apply to proper names, and they try to suggest that Theos is a proper name. However, William Wallace explains on page 272 in Greek Grammar beyond the basics why Theos, for the purpose of Granville-sharpe rule does not count as a proper name. Preach it with boldness sir! Among the most clearly stateted affirmations that Christ is God in scripture! In Christ, Beja |
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672 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207534 | ||
This question regards Heb 6:4-6. My question is this: could somebody who believes that you can not loose your salvation tell me how you understand this verse? In an attempt to save waisted time let me say a few things. First, I believe in the eternal security of the believer therefore there is no need to convince me of that doctrine. I'm looking how this verse is compatable with that doctrine. Second, I do not find the arguement that I have heard some people say, that this verse is talking about hypothetically "if we could loose our salvation." That explination does not fit within the context at all in my opinion. So if you do think that really is the explination, you need to argue it in good detail and show exactly how this is Paul's line of reasoning. Third, I do feel I might have my own answer, but it relies on stating that the translators of the NASB have not chosen the best translation of a particular participle within this passage. Not in definition but in terms of syntax. However, I'm not entirely comfortable with that answer so I am seeking what other answer there "might" be. Thank you in advance for your thoughts. |
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673 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207537 | ||
I do appreciate you wanting to help with my question and I appreciate your view point, but I must admit I wish you had read my post more carefully as I specifically took measure to avoid such a response. I whole heartedly agree that you can not loose your salvation. What I want to know is given that, what is being said in Heb 6:4-6? I encourage anybody who responds to this to please do re-read my original post so you can clearly see what I'm not asking and what I am asking. Please forgive any apparent harshness this might sound like over internet as it is not intended and such would be clear if I could say it in the tone which I wish, which is regretfully lost over this medium. | ||||||
674 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207590 | ||
Azure, since I feel your post seems to be the one that best grasped the question I'm replying to this one, but some comments will be meant to reply to other posts so please don't feel I'm putting words in your mouth, rather I'm really replying to the entire thread. First, lets lay out more clearly what exactly the problem is. Hebrews 6:4-6 describes a person who is described as this: 1. Once been enlightened 2. have tasated of the heavenly gift 3. have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit 4 have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come. 5. And then have fallen away Now, lets be open and honest and say that in any other context than what he says about these people following, we would all assume 1-4 describes a saved person. In fact, it seems a very strong description of a saved person. Perhaps it does not, and perhaps that is the answer, but if we are going to argue that we have an uphill battle. If anybody wishes to argue this the burden of proof is on them to really truely explain how you can possibly understand this to mean something other than somebody who has been saved. The problem developes in that it says they have fallen away, and it is impossible to renew them again to repentence. This appears to be saying they are now lost. Perhaps it does not. But we should be honest and admit that at first blush, that is how an honest person would see that description. The problem of the passage develops further when it apparently explains why they can not be renewed again to repentence. Since they again crucify again to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame. This appears that it is saying that the reason that they can not be moved to repentence is that it would require another sacrifice of Christ which obviously isn't coming. Now, lets recap. What this passage appears to be saying upon a very basic glance over is the following. 1. A save person is being discussed. 2. In the IF scenerio they fall away 3. They can no longer be made to repent 4. Another death of Christ would be needed for them to do so. Now, for somebody like myself whoes does NOT believe you can loose your salvation. This is a problem verse. Keep in mind that I'm not arguing that this is how the verse must be understood. Quite the contrary, I intend for us to debunk that understanding of it. However, it will not help me, nor any other Christian who struggles with this verse for us to pretend it does not at first glance say the above. So, we must admit what it appears to say, then through showing what it actually was meaning to convey, give an alternative understanding of the verse. Now, in response to your post Azure. I think your repsonse merits some thought. There is certainly in scripture the idea of a person becoming very nearly a Christian, very much involved in Christianity and then falling away because they never truely were converted. I take the passage you refered to as a primary example of this. But ofcourse the question becomes, is the description in Heb 6:4-6, particularly meaining a partaker of the Holy Spirit too strong to be refering to somebody who wasn't actually saved and indwelt of the Holy Spirit? I'll certainly think about it. I'm leaning at the moment to this person described being saved but clearly I'm open to thoughts on it. |
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675 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207605 | ||
First, your arguement about the context is ill founded for a few reasons. First, Hebrews is one of the most contested books in the NT with regards to who wrote it since even it does not make any claim. It seems it was written to Jewish Christians before the destruction of the temple in 70AD. So to argue that pursecution of Christians in Rome was the driving mentality is highly unlikely. Much more likely any persecution ideas was from the unbelieving Jews. But even if you were correct, the arguement that Hebrews is meant to be an exhortation to Christians in times of trouble does nothing to answer the question being put forward. Now in your mind you may be thinking of how it applies, but you aren't saying it clearly if that is the case. I'm not struggling with the meaning of Hebrews. I'm trying to simply see what others understand to be specifically talking about in this one passage. You are only barely touching upon that question, and when you do so it is in a passing way by which I mean, you are simply casually giving your opinion of what it is -not- meaning without really defending it. If you are certain this passage is not talking about somebody who is saved, then it is important that you forward a clear alternative understanding of this particular passage. What kind of person is Paul specifically referring to when he says those who, "have once been englightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit?" Particularly the reference to partakers of the Holy Spirit needs to be explained. And if you propose the answer is a Christian who is simply scared off by persecutions then why is it they can not be renewed to repentence? Do we become permenantly judged when a saved person falls away because of persecution? Or if your repsonse is that this person was never saved and the persecutions showed them to not be saved via their falling away, then why again can they not be brought to repentence later? Your answer deals with none of these issues. Explain what is being said in this particular passage by these particular words rather than saying in passing what is not being said by it. I pray that this post gives no offense, I am a preacher that is use to having a great many other non verbal tools to clarify good will and compassion as I speak and I find that these forums rob me of a good many of them. | ||||||
676 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207613 | ||
I apologize if I'm not communicating this clearly. The answer to the apparent inconsistencies, that you did accurately quote from me, is that one possible solution is that the passage is not saying they have lost their salvation. I do in fact have an idea of how this might be resolved and I had from the start intended to post this after I had received some alternative views. With regards to not understanding the problem I must admit it seems that I am finding a way to make unclear something that should be very clear. I had thought that anybody who reads the passage could understand the complication. The passage -appears- to be making the following statements. There are people who... 1. Were saved. 2. Have fallen away 3. Can not return to repentence 4. Because they would need to recrucify christ to do so. If the above 4 points are to be understood as I just stated them, then "once saved, always saved" is shown false. I know no other way to more clearly state the problem within this verse. The IF/THEN statement I made is absolute and can't be contested. The only thing you can do is try to prove the IF part false. Which means that you must -show how- those 4 statements are not what that passage is actually meaning to say. Possible solutions are: 1. These terms are not referring to a saved person. 2. "Falling away" is not referring to loosing your salvation. These are not the only options most likely but the most obvious ones. However, here is the rub, if you think the author is NOT talking about saved people, or is not talking about loosing your salvation then you must explain what he IS talking about. What does he mean when he refers to "those who have partaken of the Holy Spirit" or "those who have fallen away." Just saying that its not saying those four statements because the result would be something we don't want to believe is insufficient. I do not know how to more clearly sate the problem. If this attempt does not make it clear and result in stimulating a productive discussion of the above I'll give what meager answer I've come up with on my own and simply not pursue it any further. P.S. The only reason I gave the discussion the pre-determined idea that you can't loose your salvation is because if you don't believe that then the passage is obviously not a problem at all. |
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677 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207616 | ||
Ok, this is a valid view point. I disagree. But it is a valid view. The question I forward to you is this, if these people are not believers, and never were. Why can't they be moved to repentance? And why does it say moved to repentance "again." If we hold this position, then we are in essence saying that at a certain amount of hearing the gospel, then people are finally excluded from it. Yet how many people hear it for decades and finally surrender to it? As I said, its a valid view point but I personally at the moment can't bring myself to agree both based on the basis of the words the passage uses, and then based on the scenerio that seems to represent. I'm not saying you are wrong, I'm saying I currently think there isn't enough to tip the scales for me to buy into it. | ||||||
678 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207617 | ||
Ok, now we are getting into some good thoughts! This is exactly what I'm looking for. You are actually trying to address the passage rather than just stating some doctrinal statment and leaving me to wonder how it applies in my particular passage. However... This is not an if/then clause in the greek. In the greek, the main phrase is basically this: For to again renew to repentence is impossible. The rest of it is just phrases qualifying who it is moving to repentence, those who have this and this and this. Adunaton gar...palin anakainidzein eis metanoian. How I wish we had greek font for this! Following this it says roughly "because they crucify...etc." If you are able to read greek yourself do take a look at it in the greek to verify. The dots that I have inserted in the phrase are skipping over the entire description of who it is talking about but when you diagram it out this is the central phrase. So this doesn't really resolve it either since there are no conditional sentences in it. On the other hand I completely agree with your logical assessment. |
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679 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207623 | ||
You seem to think I am arguing against Hebrews as an exhortation. I am not. I can now understand your entire view on the verse up until one point. What do you believe he said a non-legit christian who falls away at persecution can not later be brought to repentence? If you stated in this post I apologize, I got everything but that. | ||||||
680 | Heb6:4-6 Loosing salvation or what? | Heb 6:4 | Beja | 207624 | ||
I have yet to see this mountain to which you refer. I can though see what your view point is, I will forward the question to you which I have asked of each of the others who have held this interpretation. Why is it that somebody who was not saved but has walked away from it not later repent? And why does the author state that the reason they can't is because they again crucify the christ for themselves? Shall I just not point out the weak points in various arguements so we can persue the best understanding possible? |
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