Results 61 - 80 of 7732
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: kalos Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Tithes were not primarily gifts to God | Ex 25:2 | kalos | 189766 | ||
Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel. AMPLIFIED Exodus 25:2 Speak to the Israelites, that they take for Me an offering. From every man who gives it willingly and ungrudgingly with his heart you shall take My offering. 'The Old Testament tithe, according to some estimates, actually approximated closer to 23 percent in total tithes and offerings! The New Testament, however, does not specify a particular percentage that believers are required to give. 'This being said, however, believers are most certainly encouraged 'to give (see Rom. 15:26-27; 1 Cor. 16:1-4; 2 Cor. 8:7) and 'to give generously and liberally (see Rom. 12:8; 2 Cor. 9:11-13), 'each according to his own ability (Acts 11:29; 2 Cor. 8:12), 'with a willing, cheerful heart (2 Cor. 9:7). 'Even those who are poor are permitted to give, and praised for doing so (Mark 12:41-44; Luke 21:1-4; 2 Cor. 8:1-5). Paul sets forth Jesus as the believer's example for giving (2 Cor. 8:8-9). 'We should give out of a heart full of gratitude toward God for what He's done for us through Christ! It is clear, then, that sacrificial giving is very much encouraged (2 Cor. 9:5) -- though not commanded (2 Cor. 8:8).' (www.probe.org/docs/e-tithing2.html) "Give...not grudgingly or of necessity..." 2 Cor. 9:7 (NKJV) AMPLIFIED Exodus 25:2 Speak to the Israelites, that they take for Me an offering. From every man who gives it willingly and ungrudgingly with his heart you shall take My offering. AMPLIFIED 1 Chronicles 29:9 Then the people rejoiced because these had given willingly, for with a whole and blameless heart they had offered freely to the Lord. King David also rejoiced greatly. |
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62 | Tithe vs Debts | 2 Corinthians | kalos | 189765 | ||
What does the Bible say about tithing? New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. 'The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver."' (www.gty.org) 'Nowhere does the New Testament require Christians to tithe in the sense of giving 10 percent, but it does reiterate many things associated with tithing: those who minister are entitled to receive support (1 Cor 9:14); the poor and needy should be cared for (1 Cor 16:1; Gal 2:10); those who give can trust God, as the source of all that is given (2 Cor 9:10), to supply their needs (2 Cor 9:8; Php 4:19); and giving should be done joyously (2 Cor 9:7). The New Testament directs that taxes be paid to the state (Rom 13:6-7), which replaced Israel's theocracy. 'Paul's vocabulary and teaching suggest that giving is voluntary and that there is no set percentage. Following the example of Christ, who gave even his life (2 Cor 8:9), we should cheerfully give as much as we have decided (2 Cor 9:7) based on how much the Lord has prospered us (1 Cor 16:2), knowing that we reap in proportion to what we sow (2 Cor 9:6) and that we will ultimately give account for our deeds (Rom 14:12).' (Source: http://bible.crosswalk.com/ Dictionaries/BakersEvangelicalDictionary/) Grace to you, Kalos |
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63 | What happened to incest? | Lev 18:6 | kalos | 189685 | ||
Are Christians Biblically forbidden to marry siblings? Yes, Christians are biblically forbidden to marry siblings. "In the 18th chapter of Leviticus, the Bible provides a lengthy list of forbidden relationships. These laws are the scriptural definition of sexual impurity... "Some would argue that these are all Old Testament references. That is correct. The reason for this is that the New Testament does not specifically address the rules of sexual misconduct, with the exception of fornication, other than to refer you back to the Old Testament laws." (Source: www.cousincouples.com/info/religion.shtml) |
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64 | Am I still Married "in God's eyes"? | NT general Archive 1 | kalos | 189683 | ||
The Right to Remarry I know what you mean by "still 'married' in God's eyes", having heard this phrase all my life. And I can appreciate your question. Yet I know of no Scripture that actually SAYS a divorced person is "still 'married' in God's eyes". What I do know is: After a divorce one's status is: divorced. Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace. NASB 1 Corinthians 7:15 'God's utter hatred of divorce is very clear in Scripture. 'Nonetheless, there are two extraordinary cases in which Scripture teaches that God does permit divorced people to remarry. 'First, note that Jesus Himself included this exception clause: "Whosoever shall put away his wife, *except it be for fornication*, and shall marry another, committeth adultery" (Matt. 19:9, King James Version, emphasis added). He allows an exception in this one case, only "because of the hardness of your hearts" (Matt. 19:8). Clearly, Jesus is treating divorce as a last resort, only to be sought in the case of hard-hearted adultery. 'The apostle Paul (writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit) allows one more reason for divorce: if an unbelieving spouse abandons a believer, the believer is under no obligation in such a case (1 Cor. 7:15). This would free the abandoned spouse to remarry. 'But we must emphasize that apart from those two specific, exceptional cases, divorce is not sanctioned in Scripture.' (Source: www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/divorce.htm) Scripture clearly gives two cases in which there is grounds for divorce, which carries with it the right to remarry -- adultery and desertion. More extensive answers to this question are available in John MacArthur, The Fulfilled Family (Chicago: Moody, 1981); and, The MacArthur New Testament Commentary: Matthew 16-23,(Chicago: Moody, 1988). See also the book "The Right to Remarry" by Dwight Hervey, Hardcover (September 1975), Fleming H Revell Co; ISBN: 0800707583. This book is now out of print, but may be available at amazon.com. Grace to you, Kalos |
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65 | Ignorance and apathy | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 189682 | ||
Ignorance and apathy Heard on Christian radio: First guy: What's the difference between ignorance and apathy? Second guy: I don't know and I don't care. |
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66 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | kalos | 189681 | ||
Brad, Good post. Likewise, Noah and his group were saved (rescued, delivered) OUT OF the water, not BY the water. Grace to you, Kalos |
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67 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | kalos | 189615 | ||
'Is baptism necessary for salvation? 'No. Let's examine what the Scriptures teach on this issue: (...) 'Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations. In 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Paul gives a concise summary of the gospel message he preached. There is no mention of baptism. In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism. That is difficult to understand if baptism is necessary for salvation. If baptism were part of the gospel itself, necessary for salvation, what good would it have done Paul to preach the gospel, but not baptize? No one would have been saved. Paul clearly understood baptism to be separate from the gospel, and hence in no way efficacious for salvation. (...) 'Since the general teaching of the Bible is, as we have seen, that baptism and other forms of ritual are not necessary for salvation, no individual passage [e.g. Acts 2:38] could teach otherwise...' To read more go to: www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/baptism.htm 134844 |
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68 | Why was Judah the chosen tribe? | Gen 49:10 | kalos | 189610 | ||
Searcher: Thanks for the clarification. The first thing I thought of was that DQ stood for either Dairy Queen or my great-great-nephew's initials, which are DQ. :-) Grace to you, Kalos |
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69 | Tithe vs Debts | 2 Corinthians | kalos | 189582 | ||
Does “robbing God” apply to us today? ____________________ "We are not physical Israel. We don’t live in the promised land. We don’t have a Levitical priesthood..." ____________________ 'Question: 'Does “robbing God” in Malachi 3:8 apply to us today?' (Source: www.bible.org/qatopic.asp) 'Answer: 'When you come to a subject like tithing, I think it is important to see that there are two extremes to avoid. The first is the temptation to conclude that tithing is not for this age, so that I feel no obligation to give, and can keep as much money for myself as possible. The other is to use the tithing texts to make people feel obliged to give more, and to feel guilty if they don’t. Preachers are usually the guilty ones with respect to the latter. The sad reality is that in most churches, at least half of those who attend give nothing —that’s right, nothing—at all to the Lord’s work. 'In the King James Version, “tithing” (“tithe,” “tithes,” “tithing”) occurs 40 times in the Bible, 32 times in the Old Testament, and 8 times in the New. In the New Testament, 5 of the 8 occurrences are found in Hebrews 7:5-9, which are referring to the “tithe” of Abraham to Melchizedek in the Old Testament. Two of the remaining 3 occurrences occur in Luke. In Luke 11:42 we find a parallel text to the one remaining text (Matthew 23:23). Here, Jesus accuses the Pharisees of tithing in the small, inexpensive, things (mint, dill, cummin), but neglecting the weightier matters. Thus, Jesus does not condemn tithing, but says that there are more important matters. (One could point out that at this point Jesus was still talking as One in the old dispensation, and not the new.) In Luke 18:12 we see the self-righteous Pharisee, boasting about his tithing as a proof (in his mind) of his righteousness. So far as I can find in the New Testament, neither Jesus or any of His apostles taught the necessity of tithing. Neither can we find any statement that they did tithe—that they practiced tithing. Jesus did pay the temple tax (Matthew 17:24-27), but we do not read of Him paying His tithe. (...) 'I would have to say that the whole tithing system cannot be brought over [from the Old Testament], in a wholesale fashion, to the church age or the New Testament saint. We are not physical Israel. We don’t live in the promised land. We don’t have a Levitical priesthood, or sacrifices to offer (literally, at least). We are, however, to support those who minister to us (1 Corinthians 9:1-14; 1 Galatians 6:6; 1 Timothy 5:17-18). We are to give to the poor, especially the saints (Acts 6:1-6; Romans 12:13; 1 Corinthians 16:1f.; 2 Corinthians 8 and 9; Gal. 2:10; 6:10; etc.). From 2 Corinthians 8 and 9 and Philippians 4, we certainly see that our giving should be out of gratitude, and something we joyfully do. The whole concept of stewardship should abolish the mindset that says, “Ten percent of what I own is to be given to God, but the remaining ninety percent is mine.” It is all God’s. As stewards, we are to wisely invest it for the glory of God and the advancement of His kingdom. In the 2 Corinthians (8 and 9) text and the Philippians 4 passage I do not see Paul appealing to the Law as the basis for giving, as though it was only our duty. I see Paul speaking of giving as though it were our delight, as it should be. All of this is to say that I would not seek to employ the Malachi text to badger saints to give. I would use the New Testament texts such as those I have mentioned to do so. We should give. Most of us should give more than we do. But I don’t personally find the Malachi text the compelling text for teaching others about giving.' ____________________ www.bible.org/qatopic.asp |
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70 | Tithe vs Debts | 2 Corinthians | kalos | 189581 | ||
What does the Bible say about tithing? 'The tithe is an Old Testament concept. The tithe was basically a requirement of the law in which all Israelites were to give 10 percent of everything they earn and grow to the tabernacle/temple (Lev 27:30; Num 18:26; Deut 14:24; 2Chr 31:5). Some understand the Old Testament tithe as a method of taxation to provide for the needs of the priests and Levites of the sacrificial system. 'The New Testament nowhere mentions the tithe system and nowhere recommends that New Covenant believers follow it. Paul states that believers should set aside a portion of their income in order to support the church (1Cor 16:1-2). The New Testament nowhere assigns a certain percentage of income to set aside, but only says it is to be “in keeping with his income” (1Cor 16:2). The Christian church took the 10 percent figure from the Old Testament tithe and applied it as a “recommended minimum” for Christians in their giving. However, New Covenant believers should not feel obligated to always give 10 percent. They should give as they are able, “in keeping with his income”. Sometimes that means giving more than 10 percent, sometime that may mean giving less than 10 percent. It all depends on the ability of the giver and the needs of the church. 'Each and every Christian should diligently pray and seek God’s wisdom for how much he or she should give (James 1:5). “Each man should give what he has decided in his heart to give, not reluctantly or under compulsion, for God loves a cheerful giver” (2Cor 9:7).' ____________________ Source: www.gotquestions.org/tithing.html |
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71 | What does "this generation" mean? | Matt 24:34 | kalos | 189580 | ||
John, Thank you for your reply. Grace to you, Kalos |
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72 | Why Saul did not recognize David? | 1 Samuel | kalos | 189544 | ||
Saul did not ask: "Who is this?", as if he didn't know David. What he asked was: "Whose son is this youth?" He was asking for the name of David's father, not for David's name. Grace to you, Kalos |
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73 | Who moved the Sabbath to Sun.? | Col 2:16 | kalos | 189541 | ||
Azure, Yes, I am still around. "The reports of my death are greatly exaggerated" (Mark Twain). Thanks for setting the record straight. :-) Grace to you, Kalos |
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74 | What does "this generation" mean? | Matt 24:34 | kalos | 189540 | ||
Does “this generation” mean “this generation”? How can one understand Jesus' reference to "this generation" (Matthew 24:34-35) as referring to any group of people other than Jesus' contemporaries, as something other than the people standing before Jesus at the time? NASB Matthew 24:34 "Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place." ‘Dispensationalists will say that [in Matthew 24]…"this generation" must mean something other than "this generation….The problem is, on all four earlier occasions in Matthew, Jesus's use of "this generation" always refers to the people alive at the time. It never refers to a future generation.' (Frank Turek, www.amazon.com/gp/product/customer-reviews/0849901847) |
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75 | reason for update? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 189360 | ||
Why was the NASB Updated? (Quoted from: A Look at the New American Standard Bible Spotlight Ministries, Vincent McCann, 1998 www.spotlightministries.org.uk) 'In 1995 the Lockman Foundation published the 'NASB Update'. As the name suggests, this is not actually a new version but rather a revision. The Foundation felt that because 25 years had passed since the appearance of the NASB it was in need of bringing more up to date. Updating included the following: removing the words thee and thou, consulting the newest scholarly editions of ancient Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic, and removing some of the idiosyncrasies found in the ancient languages that do not conform to English grammar. Some of these words were replaced with more modern equivalents and some sentences were rearranged to make them more understandable in English. Although the NASB Update is more fluid than its predecessor, it still remains as literal as possible, and while not good for public reading it is a good Bible for serious Bible study.' ____________________ (Source: A Look at the New American Standard Bible Spotlight Ministries, Vincent McCann, 1998 www.spotlightministries.org.uk) |
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76 | saved and sanctified | Ephesians | kalos | 189291 | ||
What is sanctification? ____________________ ‘To summarize, sanctification is the same Greek word as holiness, “hagios,” meaning a separation. First, a once-for-all positional separation unto Christ at our salvation. Second, a practical progressive holiness in a believer’s life while awaiting the return of Christ. Third, we will be changed into His perfect likeness—holy, sanctified, and completely separated from the presence of evil.’ ____________________ ‘Jesus had a lot to say about sanctification in the Book of John, chapter 17. In verse 16 the Lord says, “They are not of the world, even as I am not of the world,” and this is before His request: “Sanctify them in the truth: Thy word is truth.” Sanctification is a state of separation unto God; all believers enter into this state when they are born of God: “But of Him you are in Christ Jesus, who became for us wisdom from God—and righteousness and sanctification and redemption” (1 Corinthians 1:30). This is a once-for-ever separation, eternally unto God. It is an intricate part of our salvation, our connection with Christ (Hebrews 10:10). ‘Sanctification also refers to the practical experience of this separation unto God, being the effect of obedience to the Word of God in one’s life, and is to be pursued by the believer earnestly (1 Peter 1:15; Hebrews 12:14). Just as the Lord prayed in John 17, it has in view the setting apart of believers for the purpose for which they are sent into the world: “As Thou didst send Me into the world, even so send I them into the world. And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they themselves also may be sanctified in truth” (v. 18, 19). That He set Himself apart for the purpose for which He was sent is both the basis and the condition of our being set apart for that for which we are sent (John 10:36). His sanctification is the pattern of, and the power for, ours. The sending and the sanctifying are inseparable. On this account they are called saints, hagioi in the Greek; “sanctified ones.” Whereas previously their behavior bore witness to their standing in the world in separation from God, now their behavior should bear witness to their standing before God in separation from the world. ‘There is one more sense that the word sanctification is referred to in Scripture. Paul prayed in 1 Thessalonians 5:23, “The God of peace Himself sanctify you wholly; and may your spirit and soul and body be preserved entire, without blame at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Paul also wrote in Colossians of “the hope which is laid up for you in the heavens, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the Gospel” (Colossians 1:5). He later speaks of Christ Himself as “the hope of glory” (Colossians 1:27) and then mentions the fact of that hope when he says, “When Christ, who is our Life, shall be manifested, then shall ye also with Him be manifested in glory” (Colossians 3:4). This glorified state will be our ultimate separation from sin, total sanctification in every aspect. “Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is” (1 John 3:2). ‘To summarize, sanctification is the same Greek word as holiness, “hagios,” meaning a separation. First, a once-for-all positional separation unto Christ at our salvation. Second, a practical progressive holiness in a believer’s life while awaiting the return of Christ. Third, we will be changed into His perfect likeness—holy, sanctified, and completely separated from the presence of evil.’ (Source: www.gotquestions.org/sanctification.html) Grace to you, Kalos |
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77 | Which resurrection is used, 1st or 2nd? | Dan 7:25 | kalos | 189137 | ||
M. Royal, What is your position on the rapture? What do you believe about the rapture? [] What is the rapture? How do you define it? [] When does the rapture take place? Is it pre-trib, mid-trib, post-trib, prewrath, or other? Grace to you, Kalos |
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78 | What is the church falling away from? | James 1:2 | kalos | 189067 | ||
You write: "It has been said that it is the church that is falling away (apostasia,defecting,apostasy) at the rapture." My questions for you are: Where in the Bible does it SAY the church is falling away? Book, chapter and verse, please. Where in the Bible does it SAY there will be a falling away “at the rapture”? Book, chapter and verse, please. We know what the Bible means by what it says. Grace to you, Kalos |
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79 | who does God say he is? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 189066 | ||
'“I am” is not a name; “Yahweh” is.' The Only Proper Name for God '“I am” (Hebrew ’ehyeh) is not a name; “Yahweh” is.' (www.bible.org/netbible/index.htm) '“Yahweh” [YHWH] is not one of God’s names—it is his only name. Other titles, like “El Shadday,” are not strictly names but means of revealing Yahweh.' (At www.bible.org/netbible/index.htm go to Exodus 6. At this chapter read footnotes 5, 9, and especially 10.) * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * The name 'YHWH' appears almost 7,000 times in the OT. However, in the KJV YHWH is usually translated as 'LORD.' 'Yahweh/Yah (or Jehovah). yhwh (or JHVH), the tetragrammaton because of its four letters, is, strictly speaking, the only proper name for God. It is also the most frequent name, occurring in the Old Testament 6,828 times (almost 700 times in the Psalms alone). Yah is a shortened form that appears fifty times in the Old Testament, including forty-three occurrences in the Psalms, often in the admonition "hallelu-jah" (lit. praise Jah). English Bibles represent the name yhwh by the title "LORD" (written in capitals to distinguish it from "lord" [adonai]. The Septuagint rendered yhwh as kyrios (Lord).' ____________________ Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology (http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/ BakersEvangelicalDictionary/bed.cgi) When you enter this address, everything between the parentheses must be included. All of it belongs on one line. Grace to you, Kalos |
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80 | what are the days? | Gen 1:2 | kalos | 189016 | ||
Does Genesis chapter 1 literally mean 24-hour days? 'The English word "day" can mean more than one thing. It can refer to the 24-hour period of time that it takes for the earth to rotate on it's axis (i.e. "there are 24-hours in a day"). It can refer to the period of daylight between dawn and dusk (i.e. "it gets pretty hot during the day but it cools down a bit at night"). And it can refer to an unspecified period of time (i.e. "back in my Grandfather's day..."). Likewise, the Hebrew word "yom" (which translates into the English "day") can mean more than one thing. It is used to refer to a 24-hour period in Genesis 7:11. It is used to refer to the period of daylight between dawn and dusk in Genesis 1:16. And it is used to refer to an unspecified period of time in Genesis 2:4. So what does it mean in Genesis 1:5-2:2 when it's used in conjunction with oridinal numbers (i.e. the "first day," the "second day," the "third day," the "forth day," the "fifth day," the "sixth day," and the "seventh day")? Are these 24-hour periods or something else? Could "yom" as it is used here mean an unspecified period of time? How can we tell? 'We can determine how "yom" should be interpreted in Genesis 1:5-2:2 simply by examining the context in which we find the word used and then comparing it's context with how we see its usage elsewhere throughout scripture. By doing this we let Scripture interpret itself. Ken Ham of Answers in Genesis wrote a good article on this. It's published at: www.answersingenesis.org/cec/ study_guides/answersSG2.pdf. Mr. Ham writes, "The Hebrew word for day (yom) is used 2301 times in the Old Testament. Outside of Genesis 1: Yom plus ordinal number (used 410 times) always indicates an ordinary day [i.e. a 24-hour period]. The words ‘evening’ and ‘morning’ together (38 times) always indicate an ordinary day. Yom plus ‘evening’ or ‘morning’ (23 times each) always indicates an ordinary day. Yom plus ‘night’ (52 times) always indicates an ordinary day." 'Now let’s look at the context in which we find the word "yom" used in Genesis 1:5-2:2... 'Day 1 - "And God called the light 'day' [yom] and the darkness he called 'night.' So the EVENING and the MORNING were the FIRST DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:5) 'Day 2 - "So God called the firmament 'Heaven.' So the EVENING and the MORNING were the SECOND DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:8) 'Day 3 - "So the EVENING and the MORNING were the THIRD DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:13) 'Day 4 - "So the EVENING and the MORNING were the FOURTH DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:19) 'Day 5 - "So the EVENING and the MORNING were the FIFTH DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:23) 'Day 6 - "Then God saw everything that He had made, and indeed it was very good. So the EVENING and the MORNING were the SIXTH DAY [yom]." (Genesis 1:31) 'Day 7 - "Thus the heavens and the earth, and all the host of them, were finished. And on the SEVENTH DAY [yom] God ended His work which He had done, and He rested on the SEVENTH DAY [yom] from all His work which He had done." (Genesis 2:1-2) 'I think its quite clear by the context that the Author of Genesis chapter 1 meant 24-hour periods. This was the standard interpretation up until the 1800s when a paradigm shift occurred within the scientific community and the Earth's sedimentary strata layers were reinterpreted. Whereas previously the rock layers were interpreted as evidence for Noah's flood, Noah's flood was thrown out by the scientific community and the rock layers were reinterpreted as evidence for an excessively old earth. Some well meaning but terribly mistaken Christians then sought to reconcile this new anti-Flood, ant-Bible interpretation with the Genesis 1 account by reinterpreting "yom" as meaning vast unspecified periods of time. This was a mistake. 'The truth is, the evidences in favor of Noah's flood and a young earth far outnumber those in favor of an old earth and many of the old earth interpretations are known to rely upon faulty assumptions. Unfortunately the scientific community is entrenched on the matter and apparently they refuse to change their minds despite the weight of evidence contrary to their currently accepted paradigm. But please don't let their stubborn refusal influence how you read your Bible! According to Exodus 20:9-11, God used six literal days to create the world in order to serve as a model for man's work week. Work six days, rest one. Rest assured, God could have created everything in an instant if He wanted to. But apparently He had us in mind even before He made us (on the sixth day) and wanted to provide an example for us to follow.' ____________________ www.gotquestions.org/Genesis-days.html |
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