Results 61 - 80 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | Who really deserves to go to Hell/Heaven | Eph 2:8 | Morant61 | 234452 | ||
Greetings Sabrina! Maybe this will help clear up your confusion. Salvation is not based upon anything we do, either good or bad. Read Eph. 2:8-9! Eph 2:8-9 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith--and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God-- (9) not by works, so that no one can boast. So, getting to heaven is not a question of fairness or of goodness. We get to heaven only because of the gracious gift of salvation purchased upon the cross of Calvary with the blood of Jesus. No one deserves to be in Heaven. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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62 | Is your religion a true religion? | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234450 | ||
Greetings Andy! I thought you were asking an honest question, but it seems as though you are baiting us. :-( Mr. Martin and I did not actually disagree in our responses. One must understand and accept the true nature of Jesus in order to be saved, but most Christians feel that a full understanding of the Trinity is not necessary for salvation. However, as a Christian grows in his or her faith, an understanding of the Trinity will follow. For instance, I was saved when I was six years old. Did I really understand the Trinity at that age? Of course not! But, I did understand that Jesus was and is God. So, do you really have honest questions about this topic, or are you just pushing an agenda? Either way, I would be happy to discuss this issue with you, but it would be nice to know up front what your motivation is. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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63 | die in your sins | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234442 | ||
Greetings Andy! The context of the passage would support that 'I am' is used in John as a title, indicating that Jesus is Jehovah. Jesus uses "I am" four times in John (8:24, 8:28, 8:58 and 13:19). The wording is the same as in Deut. 32:39 and Is. 43:10. In fact, the LXX uses the exact same Greek phrase in Is. 43:10 as Jesus uses in John. So, clearly, Jesus is stating that He is God, not that He simply exists. The reaction of the Jews in 8:59 supports this view as they try to stone Him. Blasphemy was one of the few offenses worthy of stoning. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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64 | STMTS GOD TOOK PEOPLE TO HELL CONTRADICT | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 233273 | ||
Greetings J Lo! Luke 16:26 certainly indicates that individuals cannot cross between the paradise side and punishment side of Hades, but that does not necessarily mean that someone from earth could not go there either physically or in a vision. However, I would take any such claims with a giant grain of salt. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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65 | Explain Isa.Chapter 9 verse 3 | Is 9:3 | Morant61 | 233271 | ||
Greetings Goldy! This is one of the instances where the King James text appears to be in error. This is what Barnes says about this verse: "And not increased the joy - The Masoretes here read in the margin “to it,” instead of not.” Eleven manuscripts, two of them ancient, have this reading. This reading is followed by the Chaldee Paraphrase, the Syriac, and the Arabic. The Septuagint seems also to have so understood it. So also it is in the margin, and so the connection demands; and it is unquestionably the correct reading. It would then read, ‘thou hast increased for it (the nation) the joy.’ Hengstenberg, however, suggests that the phrase may mean, ‘whose joy thou didst not before enlarge,’ that is, upon whom thou hast before inflicted heavy sufferings. But this is harsh, and I see no reason to doubt that an error may have crept into the text." JFB says, "not increased the joy — By a slight change in the Hebrew, its (joy) is substituted by some for not, because “not increased the joy” seems opposite to what immediately follows, “the joy,” etc. Hengstenberg, retains not thus: “Whose joy thou hadst not increased,” (that is, hadst diminished). Others, “Hast thou not increased the joy?” The very difficulty of the reading, not, makes it less likely to be an interpolation. Horsley best explains it: The prophet sees in vision a shifting scene, comprehending at one glance the history of the Christian Church to remotest times - a land dark and thinly peopled - lit up by a sudden light - filled with new inhabitants - then struggling with difficulties, and again delivered by the utter and final overthrow of their enemies. The influx of Gentile converts (represented here by “Galilee of the Gentiles”) soon was to be followed by the growth of corruption, and the final rise of Antichrist, who is to be destroyed, while God’s people is delivered, as in the case of Gideon’s victory over Midian, not by man’s prowess, but by the special interposition of God." So, most modern translation do not use the word 'not'. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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66 | KJV LUKE 10:1 70 NIV HAS 72 ? | Luke 10:1 | Morant61 | 233263 | ||
Greetings John! Doc gave you an excellent answer to which I would add one quick point. The manuscript evidence for both readings is fairly strong, with the evidence for '70' being perhaps a bit more abundant. However, the manuscript evidence for '72' tends to be a bit older, by about 100 years. Thus, one has to decide on other grounds which reading is the more accurate. The other method that textual critics use is to decide which reading is more difficult. It is more understandable that a difficult reading would be changed to a more acceptable reading. In this case, '72' seems to be slightly more difficult than '70', thus many feel that '72' is the original reading. However, in this particular case, it is really a toss up. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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67 | GRACE Preacher | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 233091 | ||
Greeting Rbarman! I not sure of the context of your question. I know that there is often a difference between what Scripture says about grace and what man says about grace. So, I would recommend that you use the search box to the right of your screen and do a search on 'grace'. Find out what Scripture has to say about grace and then compare it to the definition you came across. In the process, if you have specific question, post them on the forum. Good luck! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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68 | Is salvation a choice? Deut 30:19 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 233089 | ||
Greetings AJV! There are two main theological perspectives (Calvinism and Arminianism) and each one would answer your question a little differently. But, the points that both would agree on are: 1) Salvation is entirely of God. It is not based upon any personal works or merit. (Eph. 2:8-10 and Rom. 4:1-25) It is solely based upon the saving work of Christ upon the cross. (Col. 1:20, 2:14-15) 2) Salvation is a gift that must be received. On this point, the two sides begin to diverge quite a bit. Who can receive the gift? Why can they receive the gift? I don't want to delve into those differences, but I will simply encourage enter the terms 'choose', 'accept', and 'receive' in their various forms into the search box to the right of your screen and you will find many verses. Good luck in your study! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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69 | Did Jesus and early church drink wine? | 1 Cor 11:25 | Morant61 | 233000 | ||
Greetings! We may never know for sure my friend! We do know that drunkenness is a sin, so Jesus certainly never did that! :) But, in the passage you cited, a Nazarite was not even allowed to eat grapes. So, are we going to say that Jesus never ate grapes? Personally, I don't think that Jesus did drink alcohol, but we just don't have enough evidence either way to be dogmatic about it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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70 | Did Jesus and early church drink wine? | 1 Cor 11:25 | Morant61 | 232995 | ||
Greetings You won't get any argument from me. :-) Your brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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71 | What liquid was in the communion cup? | 1 Cor 11:25 | Morant61 | 232984 | ||
Greetings! The usual tradition for the Jewish Passover was to use wine for the cups. Based upon this, most assume that both Jesus and the early Church used wine for communion. However, let me provide two points of caution for this view. 1) The language used does not necessarily mean that alcohol was used. The words alone don't give us much support either way. Fruit of the vine could mean anything from fresh grapes to fermented wine. (Mt. 26.29) 2) Even if alcohol was used, it was common in the time of Jesus to mix wine with any where from 3 to 20 times it's amount of water. So, the 'wine' would have been very watered down and very weak. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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72 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232897 | ||
Greetings! Here is an article that might aid your research into this topic: http://www.equip.org/articles/is-your-modern-translation-corrupt/ Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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73 | we r living together but r not married.. | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232858 | ||
Greeting Magie! It is never really a good idea to discuss personal issues on a public forum like this. You really should talk to a local pastor about this issue. If you would like, e-mail me at Morant61@insightbb.com, and I can put you into contact with a local pastor. If you already have a pastor, I would go speak to him about this issue. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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74 | Know God but not Jesus | Jonah | Morant61 | 232849 | ||
Greetings Ed! I believe the majority of the Jewish race at the time of Christ would fit this description. They knew God and thought they were serving Him, but rejected Christ; hence, they were lost. Consider Matt. 7:21-23: Mat 7:21-23 Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. (22) Many will say to me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?' (23) Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!' If we don't know Jesus, we are lost no matter how much we might think we know about God. Act 4:12 Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved." My understanding is that general revelation alone is not sufficient for salvation. It might be enough to open the door of someone's heart, much like Abraham who was looking for a city whose builder and maker was God (Heb. 11:10). Abraham did not know enough about God to be saved, but he knew enough about God to be interested and God revealed Himself to Abraham. Thus, in the case of Nineveh, God (wanting to spare Nineveh) had to send Jonah to preach repentance to them. This is the driving motivation behind all missions work. Rom 10:12-15 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile--the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him, (13) for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." (14) How, then, can they call on the one they have not believed in? And how can they believe in the one of whom they have not heard? And how can they hear without someone preaching to them? (15) And how can they preach unless they are sent? As it is written, "How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news!" Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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75 | Romans in the light of Jonah does it say | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232843 | ||
Greetings Ed! I'm not sure that I am following completely, but my response would be that Rom. 1:20 does teach that no man has an excuse for rejecting God since nature itself reveals Him to us. You seem to be asking, 'Is the knowledge gained through nature enough to produce saving faith?' I don't know, but it is certainly enough to produce blame. :-) I suspect that the knowledge gained through nature is not enough to produce saving faith, but it is enough to produce guilt. That guilt should then turn the person toward God for help, at which point, I believe God will make Himself know in a more complete way. However, Rom. 1:20ff tells us that many reject even the knowledge gained through nature, and turn to worship created things rather than our Creator. I hope I understood your question correctly. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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76 | Why "God" and not "the angels" Psm.8:5 | Ps 8:5 | Morant61 | 232127 | ||
Greetings Cephas! We can't really answer for the translators of the NASB, but I think I know why they did what they did. :-) The problem here lies in the difference between translation and interpretation. Heb. 2:7, 9 clearly uses the word 'Angel' in the Greek text. However, Ps. 8:5 uses the word 'elohim', which normally is translated as God. Based upon Heb. 2:7, 9, we KNOW what Ps. 8:5 means, but it is not appropriate to interpret the passage when translating it. Therefore, they simply translated the verse in accordance with what the text actually says. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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77 | NIV...Gods...? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 232124 | ||
Hi Preston! Which verse or verses are you asking about? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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78 | IS JESUS DEATH A PROPHESY | Ps 22:16 | Morant61 | 231898 | ||
Greetings Deb101! There are two main prophecies that deal with the death of Jesus: Isaiah 53 Psalm 22 Both give very detailed descriptions of the crucifixion of Jesus. As to the necessity of His crucifixion, let's let Jesus Himself answer that question: Mat 20:17-19 And as Jesus was going up to Jerusalem, he took the twelve disciples apart, and on the way he said unto them, (18) Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests and scribes; and they shall condemn him to death, (19) and shall deliver him unto the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify: and the third day he shall be raised up. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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79 | Exactly, what is Paul saying? | Rom 7:19 | Morant61 | 231826 | ||
Greetings Chaney! There are varying positions on this passage, but I believe that Romans 7 describes Paul's life under the law, while Romans 8 describes Paul's life under grace. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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80 | How should the word "epi" be translated | Rev 5:10 | Morant61 | 230986 | ||
Greetings Jamie! Greek prepositions can be translated in a number of ways depending upon context, or the case of the preposition. But, each preposition has a basic concept. The basic concept on 'epi' is physical contact. So, either translation would be acceptable, but I would prefer 'on' in the sense that our reign will be physically 'upon' the earth. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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