Results 121 - 140 of 1659
|
||||||
Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223329 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! Acts 2:4 mentions the Holy Spirit and tongues occurring at the same time. Acts 4:3 mentions the entire group being filled with the Holy Spirit, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 4:31, Paul is filled with the Holy Spirit, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 8:14-17, the Holy Spirit is given through the laying on of Peter and John's hands, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 10:44-46, the Holy Spirit and tongues are both mentioned. In Acts 19:6, tongues and the Holy Spirit are both mentioned. So, the evidence is fairly evenly split in Acts. However, remember that Acts is a narrative account. One should never base doctrine on a narrative account. There is not a single verse in Scripture that 'teaches' that everyone who receives the Holy Spirit will speak in tongues. Rather, the opposite is true. In a series of questions, requiring a 'no' response, 1 Cor. 12:30 indicates that not everyone will speak in tongues. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
122 | The Spirit and the Seventy | John 16:7 | Morant61 | 223324 | ||
Greetings Ariel Levin! 'Why' questions are tough, unless Scripture gives us a direct answer. I'm not sure which verse you referencing concerning Moses and the 70 elders, but usually in the Old Testament, the Holy Spirit only came upon people for a time. After Christ, the Holy Spirit now indwells all of His people, all of the time. Here is how Albert Barnes explains it: ************** Joh 16:7 It is expedient for you ... - The reason why it was expedient for them that he should go away, he states to be, that in this way only would the Comforter be granted to them. Still, it may be asked why the presence of the Holy Spirit was more valuable to them than that of the Saviour himself? To this it may be answered: 1. That by his departure, his death, and ascension - by having these great facts before their eyes they would be led by the Holy Spirit to see more fully the design of his coming than they would by his presence. While he was with them, notwithstanding the plainest teaching, their minds were filled with prejudice and error. They still adhered to the expectation of a temporal kingdom, and were unwilling to believe that he was to die. When he should have actually left them they could no longer doubt on this subject, and would be prepared to understand why he came. And this was done. See the Acts of the Apostles everywhere. It is often needful that God should visit us with severe affliction before our pride will be humbled and we are willing to understand the plainest truths. 2. While on the earth the Lord Jesus could be bodily present but in one place at one time. Yet, in order to secure the great design of saving men, it was needful that there should be some agent who could be in all places, who could attend all ministers, and who could, at the same time, apply the work of Christ to people in all parts of the earth. 3. It was an evident arrangement in the great plan of redemption that each of the persons of the Trinity should perform a part. As it was not the work of the Spirit to make an atonement, so it was not the work of the Saviour to apply it. And until the Lord Jesus had performed this great work, the way was not open for the Holy Spirit to descend to perform his part of the great plan; yet, when the Saviour had completed his portion of the work and had left the earth, the Spirit would carry forward the same plan and apply it to men. 4. It was to be expected that far more signal success would attend the preaching of the gospel when the atonement was actually made than before. It was the office of the Spirit to carry forward the work only when the Saviour had died and ascended; and this was actually the case. See Acts 2. Hence, it was expedient that the Lord Jesus should go away, that the Spirit might descend and apply the work to sinners. The departure of the Lord Jesus was to the apostles a source of deep affliction, but had they seen the whole case they would not have been thus afflicted. So God often takes away from us one blessing that he may bestow a greater. All affliction, if received in a proper manner, is of this description; and could the afflicted people of God always see the whole case as God sees it, they would think and feel, as he does, that it was best for them to be thus afflicted. It is expedient - It is better for you. ******* I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
123 | Acts9:1-30 vs Galations 1:15-19 | Acts 9:23 | Morant61 | 223316 | ||
Greetings Wncryder! The question from the non-believer begins with a false assumption. The question states that the writer of Acts claims that 'within a few days after Paul's conversion he went to Jerusalem'. Yet, nowhere does Acts make that claim. :-) Acts 9:23 mentions 'many days', but how many days is never specified. The only definitive time reference is found in Galatians, where Paul says he did not go to Jerusalem until after three years. In fact, Galatians seems to indicate that Paul went to Damascus, then to Arabia, back to Damascus, and then to Jerusalem. Acts 9 only records one of the trips to Damascus and the trip to Jerusalem. Both accounts are accurate, neither lied. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
124 | Did the Romans kill Jesus or did the Jew | NT general | Morant61 | 223169 | ||
Greetings Bob! You are correct that the Jewish leaders plotted to have Jesus killed. The Roman authorities carried out His execution. But, we are all responsible for His death, because He died for our sins - 1 John 2:2. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
125 | Translate Rev 5:10 accurately please | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222760 | ||
Greetings RRHill! Excellent question! The Textus Receptus, upon which the KJV is based, reads 'us', but there is very little textual support for the reading. Other translations use 'them', which has much greater textual support. So, the NIV would be more accurate in it's reading and translation in this case. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
126 | how many years moses deid when Jesus cam | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222653 | ||
Greetings David! The date of Moses' birth is much in dispute. He was probably born around 1500 BC, so he probably died in the early 1300's BC. Jesus was most likely born around 6 BC. So, He was born between 1200 and 1300 years after Moses died. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
127 | Imprecatory Prayers in New Testament | NT general | Morant61 | 222284 | ||
Greetings Lcdking! For those who may not know, an imprecatory prayer is a prayer in which vengeance, death, or some curse is called for upon one's enemies. They are found in the Old Testament. But, I can't think of any clear examples in the New Testament. Some have argued that Jesus prayer concerning Judas may have been one, and there are a few cases of church discipline that some think may be imprecatory in nature. However, I can't think of any clear cut instances. Here is link to a good article about this subject: http://www.gotquestions.org/imprecatory-prayer.html Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
128 | In Him | Col 1:16 | Morant61 | 222276 | ||
Greetings Kiki! Excellent question! In Colossians 1:16, Paul stresses the supremacy of Christ over all things. The word translated 'in' is the Greek preposition 'en'. This preposition indicates the means by which all things were created. In this case, all things were created 'by Him' and 'for Him'. So, like the NASB, 'by Him' would be a better translation that 'in Him'. I hope this answers your question! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
129 | what number does threescore meam | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222187 | ||
Greetings! A 'score' is 20. So, threescore would be 3 times 20, or 60. While, fourscore would be 4 times 20, or 80. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
130 | what threescore and fourscore means | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222185 | ||
Greetings! A 'score' is 20. So, threescore would be 3 times 20, or 60. While, fourscore would be 4 times 20, or 80. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
131 | Why is bigamy ok but adultry isn't? | Ex 21:10 | Morant61 | 221910 | ||
Greetings Rolff! I believe you are talking about Exodus 21:10. The laws listed in Exodus 21-23 deal with issues of social justice. No where in these passages is bigamy commanded or approved. However, bigamy did occur, so God laid out regulations to protect the wives in these situations. Just like Scripture tells us that God hates divorce, but yet He regulates it to protect the innocent. In the same way, Ex. 22 regulates what to do in cases of the rape of a virgin. God is not condoning rape. He is protecting the victim. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
132 | Why not to marry relatives? | Lev 18:6 | Morant61 | 220198 | ||
Greetings Tbacani! The most extensive passage dealing with incest is found in Lev. 18:6-18. Here is what the Bible Knowledge Commentary says about this passage: " b. Prohibitions against incestuous unions (18:6-18) 18:6-18. The general principle of this section is given in verse 6: Do not have sexual relations (the Heb. uses a euphemism trans. lit., ”to uncover the nakedness of“) with any close relative other than your spouse. The primary thrust of the passage is to forbid illicit marriages, as the prohibition against adultery was assumed (cf. v. 20; but contrast Harrison, Leviticus, p. 186). Also assumed is the prohibition against marrying a non-Israelite (forbidden in Deut. 7:3-6; cf. 1 Kings 11:1-2). However, if a non-Israelite (as Ruth) converted to the Lord, marriage was permissible. The following regulations can be gleaned from this section. A man could not marry his mother (Lev. 18:7) or his sister (or half-sister; first degree of consanguinity according to modern genetics, v. 9). Prohibition of marriage to one’s daughter was assumed and so not mentioned (cf. Gen. 19:30-38). Nor could he marry his granddaughter (second degree of consanguinity, Lev. 18:10) or his aunt (father’s or mother’s sister, vv. 12-14). Also forbidden were marriages to a widowed wife of a close blood relative, that is, a man’s stepmother (v. 8), half-sister (v. 11), aunt by marriage (v. 14), daughter-in-law (v. 15), sister-in-law (v. 16), step-daughter (v. 17), and step-granddaughter (v. 17). The apparent reason behind these prohibitions against marriage to those with such an in-law relationship was that they had become ”one flesh“ (Gen. 2:24) with the blood relative, and so were regarded as a part of the larger family unit (cf. Wenham, Leviticus, pp. 254-8, for specific examples of some of the more difficult identifications)." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
133 | Is "through His Blood" in the Greek | Col 1:14 | Morant61 | 219854 | ||
Greetings Dave! Basically, there is very little textual support for the phrase 'though his blood' in Col. 1:14. However, the phrase is thoroughly supported in Eph. 1:7. Here is how Clarke explains the situation in his commentary: "The clause,..., Through his blood, is omitted by ABCDEFG, and by most others of weight and importance; by the Syriac, Arabic of Erpen, Coptic, Ethiopic, Sahidic, some copies of the Vulgate and by the Itala; and by most of the Greek fathers. Griesbach has left it out of the text. It is likely that the reading here is not genuine; yet that we have redemption any other way than through the sacrifice of Christ, the Scriptures declare not. The same phrase is used Eph 1:7, where there is no various reading in any of the MSS., versions, or fathers." I hope this helps. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
134 | being deprived | Rom 5:3 | Morant61 | 219694 | ||
Greetings David! Brad already directed you to some excellent Scriptures. May I add a few comments from my experience as a pastor? You have not included any specifics, which is probably a good idea since this in not a counseling site. :-) But, may I just respond in a very general way. It has been my experience that: 1) Individuals endure the normal hardships that face all of us in a fallen world, but sometimes we overemphasize the hardships and do not see that good that God brings into our lives. 2) In some cases, like Job in Scripture, God allows hardships that we might grow from the experience. 3) Or, in many cases, we bring the hardships upon us by our choices. For instance, someone will not work, but wonders why they never have any money. Or, someone uses drugs or alcohol, and constantly makes bad choices which affect the rest of their lives. I don't know what your situation is my friend, but I know that God is good. May I suggest that you meet with your local pastor and discuss these things! An internet forum is a horrible place to get help or advice concerning personal matters. You are in our prayers! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
135 | Explain " do your first works over" ? | Rev 2:5 | Morant61 | 219566 | ||
Greetings Bmlg! In Rev. 2:1-7, the word 'works' (Strongs 2041) is used 3 times. In this passage, John lists the 'works' of the Church at Ephesus. They: 1) Were hard workers - v. 2. 2) Had persevered - v.2. 3) Could not tolerate wicked men - v. 2. 4) Tested false apostles - v. 2. 5) Persevered and endured hardships - v. 3. Yet, in spite of their past accomplishments, they had left their first love. So, 'doing their first works again' means to go back and do as they had at the beginning and repent of where they are at now. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
136 | LXX of Luke 4.18 vs Isaiah 61.1 | Luke 4:18 | Morant61 | 219556 | ||
Greetings Rick! According to Keil and Delitzsch's commentary, the word used to describe the opening of the prison is often used to describe the opening of eyes. They suggest that the LXX has expanded the verse to include both concepts. Further, there are other passages in Isaiah that Jesus could have been conflating with Is. 61:1, such as Is. 42:7. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
137 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:36 | Morant61 | 219554 | ||
Greetings Rick! When 'hos' is used with numerals, it generally denotes an approximation (as you noted). Nothing in the text gives us a clear time line. The 3 months could have ended either before or after the events of v. 57. It is only an assumption on my part, but I would imagine that Mary would at least stay long enough for John's birth, to make sure that he and Elizabeth were both okay. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
138 | What does this dream mean? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 219074 | ||
Greetings Jon! This is a Bible study forum my friend! We don't try to interpret dreams. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
139 | what is this particular scripture saying | Job 22:28 | Morant61 | 218935 | ||
Greetings! Here is what Barnes says about Job 22:28: "Job 22:28 Thou shalt also decree a thing, and it shall be established unto thee - Thou shalt form a purpose or plan, and it shall not be frustrated. It shall not be opposed by the events of divine Providence, but whatever you undertake shall prosper. And the light shall shine upon thy ways - Thou shalt be prospered in all things, instead of being overtaken with calamity." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
140 | Creation of Angels | Ex 20:11 | Morant61 | 218869 | ||
Greetings YenlsaRap! Scripture never tells us how long they were in the Garden prior to the temptation. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 ] Next > Last [83] >> |