Results 161 - 180 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
161 | Removal of "the" from the Holy Spirit | NT general | Morant61 | 214840 | ||
Greetings Race! It's me again! :-) I looked up the numbers. 'The Holy Spirit' occurs 85 times in the NT (in Greek). 'Holy Spirit' occurs 119 times in the NT. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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162 | Removal of "the" from the Holy Spirit | NT general | Morant61 | 214839 | ||
Greetings Race4thrls! Greek sometimes uses the article with 'Holy Spirit' and sometimes doesn't. Matt. 12:32 uses the article: "Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come." I am not sure about the percentage of with or without the article, but I do not that both occur quite frequently. In general, I would say 'the Holy Spirit' makes more sense in English. Maybe Hank could give us some direction on that point? I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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163 | Clarifications re "aion" | Eph 3:9 | Morant61 | 214836 | ||
Greetings Jubalee! In the spirit of full disclosure, I am by no means a Greek expert. :-) I have been trained in it and have a decent working knowledge of it. All translation involves interpretation. Words are very fluid and flexible things. For instance, if you were to find an English document some 3,000 years in the future, how would you translate the word 'level'? It could be a verb, or a noun, or an adjective. Words can sometimes be used in Greek to express idioms or meanings that may not be apparent from a very literal translation. Having said that, I think a more literal translation is preferable when possible. 'Age' or 'ages' can refer to a definite period of time or an indefinite period of time. Thus, one possible meaning is 'eternal'. In the case of v. 11, the literal 'purpose of the ages' could be translated as 'eternal purpose' in the same way that 'bush of fire' could be translated as 'fiery bush'. You wrote: "In the KJV, the translators have many times rendered “aion” as “eternal” or “forever”. However, as I have been studying this I’ve come to the conclusion that “aion” can only be correctly rendered as: a limited time, an age, and the plural means ages. Am I correct in this?" This is a mistake that a lot of beginners in language studies make. Many feel that one should simply be able to take a strong's concordance and plug a particular meaning into a translation all through out Scripture. However, translation is much more difficult than that. :-) I don't really know much about modern Greek. However, google has a translation feature. When I typed in 'eternal' it translated it into 'aionios'. I hope this helps some! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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164 | Translation of the Greek word "aion" | Eph 3:9 | Morant61 | 214829 | ||
Greetings Jubalee! You are correct that Young's Literal translation is the more literal of the three. Eph. 3:9 literally says, "...the mystery hidden from the ages by God, Who created all things." Eph. 3:11 speaks of a 'purpose of the ages which He has done in Christ Jesus our Lord.' It is easy to see how v. 11 could be translated as 'eternal purpose'. V. 8 though is more difficult. The KJV apparently saw 'from the ages' as a reference to creation. Personally, I would stick with the more literal. As for resources, try 'e-sword'. Just google it! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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165 | belly of a whore? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 214242 | ||
Greetings ...erdone! John already pointed out that the phrase is not found anywhere in the Bible. I would add a link to a website that contains a list of other Biblical 'urban legends' that are also not found in the Bible. http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/sayings.cfm Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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166 | proteros - pote | Eph 4:22 | Morant61 | 213966 | ||
Greetings Searcher! They are not related in Greek. 'Proteros' is a comparative adjective formed from the preposition 'pro'. 'Pote' is an adverb. I hope this helps my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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167 | The people that never heard of Jesus? | Rom 1:20 | Morant61 | 213839 | ||
Greetings Skasian! Beja already gave you a great answer, but I would add one point. You asked about 'good people' being sent to hell. Rom. 3:9-20 says about people in general: "What shall we conclude then? Are we any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. 10 As it is written: ‘‘There is no one righteous, not even one; 11 there is no one who understands, no one who seeks God. 12 All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.” 13 ‘‘Their throats are open graves; their tongues practice deceit.” ‘‘The poison of vipers is on their lips.” 14 ‘‘Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness.” 15 ‘‘Their feet are swift to shed blood; 16 ruin and misery mark their ways, 17 and the way of peace they do not know.” 18 ‘‘There is no fear of God before their eyes.” 19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God. 20 Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin." Thus, in answer to your question, there is no one who is good. Thus, a good person never gets sent to hell. However, we are all sinners who deserve hell for our sin and rebellion against God. It is only by the grace of Christ that any of us avoid hell. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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168 | Are those words always imperative? | Luke 11:9 | Morant61 | 213785 | ||
Greetings Perro! The number 154 refers to Strong's reference number for the verb 'aiteo'. 'Aiteo' is not always a present imperative. The verb can be a variety of tenses and moods. In the case of Luke 11:9, it is a present, active, imperative verb. I hope this helps my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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169 | What adds the "keep on" | Luke 11:9 | Morant61 | 213769 | ||
Greetings Perro! The verbs 'ask', 'seek', and 'knock' are all present, active, imperative verbs. The present tense typically indicates continuous action in the present time. So, one way to translate them would be to add words that indicate continuous action. Great question! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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170 | Greek use of koinos and akathartos | Acts 10:15 | Morant61 | 213666 | ||
Greetings MJH! I haven't had time to do any extensive research on this excellent question, but I have noticed a couple of things. It certainly is true that the LXX only uses akathartos in Lev. 11. Koinos is only found a couple of times in Proverbs in the LXX. So, I am not sure there is enough evidence to decide if there is a clear cut difference in meaning between the two words. However, in the NT, the two words are used together quite often. Are they synonymous or not? The clearest indication that they may be synonymous appears to be Acts 10:15 where Peter is told not to call anything 'koinos' that God has 'katharizo'. I'll try to do some more checking on this question. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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171 | Love for all, judge not anyone | OT general | Morant61 | 213096 | ||
Greetings Kam! You must have an interesting local newspaper. You had similar letters to the editor about a month ago. :) These questions seem difficult to the unbelieving, but they are quite simple in actuality. All of the things mentioned in this letter were part of God's covenant with Israel. We are not bound by that covenant, hence, we do not execute homosexuals. This covenant was only for a specific people, at a specific time in history. It is not binding upon us. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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172 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213039 | ||
Greetings Robert! Let's start with what Scripture says. Following are every verse where the words 'change' and 'mind' occur together in the Bible (NIV). Num. 23:19 - "God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?" 1 Sam. 15:29 - "He who is the Glory of Israel does not lie or change his mind; for he is not a man, that he should change his mind." Ps. 110:4 - "The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind: ‘‘You are a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek.”" Heb. 7:21 - "but he became a priest with an oath when God said to him: ‘‘The Lord has sworn and will not change his mind: ‘You are a priest forever.’” Heb. 12:17 - "Afterward, as you know, when he wanted to inherit this blessing, he was rejected. He could bring about no change of mind, though he sought the blessing with tears." The last one does not refer to God. The third and fourth verses refer to a specific promise of God. The first and second refer to God in general (His nature). The only instances that I can find where God 'seems' to have changed His mind are instances like Nineveh where individuals or groups are allowed to avoid punishment because they repented. In those cases, the wrath is conditional. But, Scripture is quite clear that God does not 'change' His mind. He may respond to our repentance, but His plan is perfect. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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173 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213009 | ||
Greetings Robert! In the case of Nineveh, it wasn't so much that God changed His mind as that Nineveh repented. In other words, the warning to Nineveh was conditional. There are a limited number of places where God seems to change His mind, but they all occur in places where conditional circumstances were in place. In the didactic portions of Scripture, we are told over and over again that God does not change His mind. This was a quick response, but I hope it helps. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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174 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 212987 | ||
Greetings Robert! If I may speak for Doc, he is saying that God is perfect, so why would He ever have to change His mind. His will for us is always perfectly loving and kind, so there is no need for a plan B. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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175 | Pr. 6:23 the commandment is a lamp??? | Prov 6:23 | Morant61 | 212857 | ||
Greetings Haalo! It would help you to understand Prov. 6:23 if you look at the verse in context. Here are a few verses before and one verse after: Pro 6:20 My son, keep your father's commands and do not forsake your mother's teaching. Pro 6:21 Bind them upon your heart forever; fasten them around your neck. Pro 6:22 When you walk, they will guide you; when you sleep, they will watch over you; when you awake, they will speak to you. Pro 6:23 For these commands are a lamp, this teaching is a light, and the corrections of discipline are the way to life, Pro 6:24 keeping you from the immoral woman, from the smooth tongue of the wayward wife. So, the commandment in v. 23 clearly refers to the teachings of one's parents. Does this help? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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176 | What is the diff between pros and eis? | Eph 4:12 | Morant61 | 212424 | ||
Greetings Searcher! Great question! Fundamentally, there is no great distinction between 'pros' and 'eis'. Both prepositions in this verse indicate purpose. Yet, there is a question as to why Paul didn't just use one or the other. Why did he use both? In my opinion, he used both to indicate two different purposes. The first purpose is the 'equipping of the saints', while the second purpose is 'for the work of service'. In other words, the second purpose is accomplished through the first. The third 'for' could be a third purpose or even a restatement of the second purpose. It could even be a result. :-) If I were translating this verse, I would just stick with 'for' for both 'pros' and 'eis' as adding too many other words might result in interpretation rather than translation. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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177 | Problem sharing our faith? | Ex 20:1 | Morant61 | 212013 | ||
Greetings Kamschoolgrad! Your boyfriend's best bet is to share with his friends what Christ has done for him. You will never be able to argue someone into the Kingdom of God. :-) Having said that, you asked about God contradicting Himself. He didn't. He commanded us not to murder, the taking of innocent life. His command to kill some for violating His Law is not murder - it is justice. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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178 | Was Pink rightPs 115:3 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 211539 | ||
Greetings Hopalong! This topic has been discussed many times over the years. For anyone interested in reading more about it, I would encourage the use the of the search function. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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179 | Seth listed as Adams son, 1st Ch Mt 1 Lk | 1 Chronicles | Morant61 | 211534 | ||
Greetings Joshua! Genealogies trace a family through through a particular branch of the family. Thus, in this case, Christ is descended from Seth, but not from Cain or Able, so the genealogies in Matthew and Luke do not mention Cain or Able. In the same way, 1 Chronicles does not mention Cain or Able because Abraham was descended from Seth, not them. I hope this helps my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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180 | Accept , Reject ? | NT general | Morant61 | 211481 | ||
Greetings Newwine! This is a topic that has been debated many times over the years. Please use the search function to access these threads. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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