Results 41 - 60 of 74
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | Should we use Religious titles here? | Luke 18:18 | Truthfinder | 90971 | ||
Hi Justme, I for one agree with you. I also think if Jesus were here, he too would agree since he said in Luke 18:18, "Jesus replied: “Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God." Jesus here recognized that his God was "good" in the ultimate since. We know of course, that he was still "good" but in a lesser yet still perfect since. His life of humility was an example for us all. That's why I like your name, "justme". Truthfinder |
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42 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 71478 | ||
John 1:1 What basis in the greek is there for "and the word was a god.” Joh 1:1—“and the Word was a god (godlike; divine)” Gr.(kai the·os' en ho lo'gos) 1808 “and the word was a god” The New Testament, in An Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London. 1864 “and a god was the Word” The Emphatic Diaglott (J21, interlinear reading), by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London. 1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago. 1950 “and the Word was a god” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn. 1975 “and a god (or, of a divine Das Evangelium nach kind) was the Word” Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz,Göttingen, Germany. 1978 “and godlike sort was Das Evangelium nach the Logos” Johannes,by Johannes Schneider,Berlin. 1979 “and a god was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany. Some translations render John 1:1 as saying: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Literally the Greek text reads: “In beginning was the word, and the word was toward the god, and god was the word.” The translator must supply capitals as needed in the language into which he translates the text. It is clearly proper to capitalize “God” in translating the phrase “the god,” since this must identify the Almighty God with whom the Word was. But the capitalizing of the word “god” in the second case does not have the same justification. The New World Translation renders this text: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.” True, there is no indefinite article (corresponding to “a” or “an”) in the original Greek text. But this does not mean one should not be used in translation, for Koine, or common Greek, had no indefinite article. Hence, throughout the Christian Greek Scriptures, translators are obliged to use the indefinite article or not according to their understanding of the meaning of the text. All English translations of those Scriptures do contain the indefinite article hundreds of times; yet most do not use it at John 1:1. Nevertheless, its use in the rendering of this text has sound basis. (continued) |
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43 | What is the difference between a | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 90708 | ||
Hi Lady lkh, If I wanted to know, (really know) what a Baptist believed, how wise would it be for me to go and ask a Muslim? Hmmm, you're exactly right. A biased response, at least. Tell you what, if you believe all this hog wash that responded to your question, then the truth of the matter is, that is what you "wanted" to hear anyway. I read these comments that run other religions down (without legitimate reason) and just shake my head, concluding; "we must be living in the DARK AGES all over again." Sorry, but the truth is simple, logical, and straight from the Bible. I have a couple of questions for you: 1) In the first century, for the most part, what kind of people accepted Jesus' teaching? a) The highly educated people of the time, b) the proud religious leaders, or c) the unlettered, humble, ordinary people? Please read for yourself from your own Bible these short verses. . (Acts 4:13; Luke 10:21) The one thing that stands out in my mind after years of serious religious study is that through the centuries "higher education" has done nothing but corrupt, yes shipwrecked untold millions' faith into atheism by teaching evolution. Mistranslation of the Holy Scriptures by the "higher educated" likewise has mislead millions into taking the honor and glory due our heavenly Father and Creator and giving it to his "firstborn" Son. If you are serious in wanting to know what the "original" Bible said about a matter, read my posts of the past. The hard fact is that today's Bible translations have changed the "original" in thousands of places and many on this forum know it and try and make us believe totally, unforgivable "lies" as to what it truthfully said. I will tell you what Jehovah's Witnesses believe the Bible teaches and why. You can then decide for yourself if that is what the Bible really says. Truthfinder |
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44 | Truthfinder: Is Jesus God? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 90981 | ||
Hi Hank, No. Truthfinder |
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45 | Jesus | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 90982 | ||
Hi Elder, I notice you wrote this back in December, nonetheless, I will simply say that Matthew 4:10 are Jesus' own words that answer your question. Note he is quoting Deut 6:13 which uses "Jehovah". But many Bibles have changed the original to say "Lord". This leads to confusion. But many other Bibles do use Jehovah and in them they say,‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service." Hope this answers your question. Truthfinder |
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46 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 91020 | ||
Hi Tim, We have manuscript proof that "scribes" NOT Jesus changed the originals again and again of the Hebrew yhvh of the Hebrew texts in their translation of the LXX. They even give their reasons. After Matthew (not Jesus) wrote Jesus' words of Matt. 4:10 there is abosolutely no reason for them to suddenly (still after Jesus time) stop their tradition of substituting Lord for the yhvh in their Greek LXX (of the Greek texts) written after Matthew wrote it. We have many many Hebrew manuscripts of the Greek texts though, that have the yhvh but unfortionately no originals. Remember too, that Matthew wrote his book originally in Hebrew. I contend that Jesus used the LXX before it was changed by the scribes. And since we lack the "originals", evidence points stronger toward Jesus' not following the errors of the Jewish tradition and you cannot conclusively say Tim, that Jesus did not use his Father's name on occassion, especially when he "quoted" the Hebrew texts (whether the LXX or Hebrew writtings) that used it. It's interesting that most of the LXX manuscripts, before they were changed kept the Hebrew letters for the yhvh, yet one discovery, (the 4Q LXX Lev(b) ) presented in Supplements to Vetus Testamentum, Vol. IV, 1957, p 157, shows that the yhvh was translated also as IAO. Truthfinder |
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47 | Who did God speak to? | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 73480 | ||
Hi, A two year old post. O well, wanted to comment regardless. The three recorded occasions in the Bible where Almighty God Jehovah spoke directly from heaven to people on earth are as follows: (Matthew 3:17) Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” (Matthew 17:5) While he was yet speaking, look! a bright cloud overshadowed them, and, look! a voice out of the cloud, saying: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved; listen to him.” (John 12:28) Father, glorify your name.” Therefore a voice came out of heaven: “I both glorified [it] and will glorify [it] again.” Doubtless on many occasions during his prehuman existence as the Word, Jesus acted as Jehovah’s Spokesman to persons on earth. While certain texts refer to Jehovah as though directly speaking to humans, other texts make clear that he did so through an angelic representative. (Compare Ex 3:2-4 with Ac 7:30, 35; also Ge 16:7-11, 13; 22:1, 11, 12, 15-18.) Reasonably, in the majority of such cases God spoke through the Word. He likely did so in Eden, for on two of the three occasions where mention is made of God’s speaking there, the record specifically shows someone was with Him, undoubtedly his Son. (Ge 1:26-30; 2:16, 17; 3:8-19, 22) The angel who guided Israel through the wilderness and whose voice the Israelites were strictly to obey because ‘Jehovah’s name was within him,’ may therefore have been God’s Son, the Word. See Ex 23:20-23; and Jos 5:13-15. Truthfinder |
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48 | Which reading? | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 77287 | ||
I agree, Tim | ||||||
49 | origanal pronunciation for Jesus Christ | Acts 7:45 | Truthfinder | 90885 | ||
Hi Yoda, Hope this helps. Jesus is the Latinized form of the Gr. I·e·sous´, which corresponds to the Heb. Ye·shu a or Yehoh·shu a and means “Jehovah Is Salvation”. In Greek it is pronounced Hee ay soos. The name I·e·sous´ appears in the Greek text of Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 Truthfinder |
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50 | Does the bible talk about psychics? | Acts 16:16 | Truthfinder | 94217 | ||
Hi plong62, At Acts 16:16-19, the sacred record reports that “a certain servant girl” in the ancient city of Philippi furnished her masters with much gain by her “art of prediction.” The account plainly says, however, that the source of her predictions was, not the almighty Creator, but “a demon of divination.” Hence, when the apostle Paul expelled the demon, the servant girl lost her powers of prediction. When we understand that such predictions come from a demonic source, we see why God’s Law to Israel stated: “There should not be found in you . . . anyone who employs divination, a practicer of magic or anyone who looks for omens or a sorcerer, or one who binds others with a spell or anyone who consults a spirit medium or a professional foreteller of events . . . For everybody doing these things is something detestable to Jehovah.” (Deuteronomy 18:10-12) In fact, the Law made such practices a capital offense.—Leviticus 19:31; 20:6. It may surprise you to learn that evil forces are behind many seemingly harmless superstitious practices. Yet, the Bible says that Satan ‘transforms himself into an angel of light.’ (2 Corinthians 11:14) Satan and the demons under his control can make dangerous practices appear harmless, even beneficial. At times, they may fabricate portents and make them come true, deceiving onlookers into thinking that such omens are from God. (Compare Matthew 7:21-23; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-12.) This explains why some predictions made by those claiming special powers at times come true. Of course, many, if not most, who claim special powers are fakes, mere charlatans, out to bilk money from the unwary. But whether fakes or otherwise, they are all effectively used by Satan to turn people against Jehovah, blinding them to “the glorious good news.”—2 Corinthians 4:3, 4. Truthfinder |
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51 | Who did God punish for using a psychic? | Acts 16:16 | Truthfinder | 94220 | ||
Hi Jana T, All the various forms of divination, regardless of the name by which they are called, stand in sharp contrast with, and open defiance of, the Holy Bible. Jehovah through Moses sternly and repeatedly warned Israel not to take up these divination practices of the other nations, saying: “There should not be found in you anyone who makes his son or his daughter pass through the fire, anyone who employs divination, a practicer of magic or anyone who looks for omens or a sorcerer, or one who binds others with a spell or anyone who consults a spirit medium or a professional foreteller of events or anyone who inquires of the dead. For everybody doing these things is something detestable to Jehovah, and on account of these detestable things Jehovah your God is driving them away from before you.” (De 18:9-12; Le 19:26, 31) Even if their prophetic signs and portents came true, practicers of divination were not exempted from condemnation. (De 13:1-5; Jer 23:32; Zec 10:2) The Bible’s extreme hostility toward diviners is shown in its decree that all such were to be put to death without fail.—Ex 22:18; Le 20:27. But despite these repeated commandments, apostates flouted Jehovah—not just commoners like the woman of En-dor, but mighty kings like Saul and Manasseh, and Queen Jezebel. (1Sa 28:7, 8; 2Ki 9:22; 21:1-6; 2Ch 33:1-6) Though good King Josiah cleaned out the divination practitioners in his day, it was not enough to save Judah from being destroyed, as her sister kingdom Israel had been. (2Ki 17:12-18; 23:24-27) Jehovah, however, in his loving-kindness, first sent his prophets to warn them regarding their disgusting practices, the same as his prophets warned the mother of all divination, Babylon.—Isa 3:1-3; 8:19, 20; 44:24, 25; 47:9-15; Jer 14:14; 27:9; 29:8; Eze 13:6-9, 23; Mic 3:6-12; Zec 10:2. Divination was also very prevalent in the days of Jesus’ apostles. On the island of Cyprus, a sorcerer by the name of Bar-Jesus was struck with blindness because of his interference with the apostle Paul’s preaching; and in Macedonia, Paul cast a demon of divination out of a bothersome girl, much to the consternation of her masters, who made much gain by her occult power of prediction. (Ac 13:6-11; 16:16-19) However, others, like Simon of Samaria, voluntarily gave up their practice of magical arts, and at Ephesus there were so many who burned their books of divination that the value of them totaled 50,000 pieces of silver (if denarii, 37,200 dollars).—Ac 8:9-13; 19:19. Man’s natural desire to know the future is satisfied when he worships and serves his Grand Creator, for through God’s channel of communication He lovingly reveals ahead of time what it is good for man to know. (Am 3:7) However, when men turn away from Jehovah and become alienated from the only One who knows the end from the beginning, they easily fall victim to spiritistic demon influence. Saul is such a striking example, one who at first looked to Jehovah for knowledge of future events but who, after being cut off from all contact with God because of his unfaithfulness, turned to the demons as a substitute for divine guidance.—1Sa 28:6, 7; 1Ch 10:13, 14. A sharp distinction, therefore, exists between revealed truth from God and information obtained by divination. Those who turn to the latter are often seized in violent convulsions by invisible demonic powers, sometimes working themselves into a frenzy by weird music and certain drugs. No such physical or mental distortions are experienced by true servants of Jehovah when moved by holy spirit to speak. (Ac 6:15; 2Pe 1:21) God’s prophets in a sense of duty spoke freely without payment; the pagan diviners plied their trade for selfish personal gain. Nowhere in the Bible is any form of divination given a good connotation. Many times in the same condemnatory texts spiritistic practices of divination are spoken of together with adultery and fornication. (2Ki 9:22; Na 3:4; Mal 3:5; Ga 5:19, 20; Re 9:21; 21:8; 22:15) In God’s eyes divination is comparable to the sin of rebellion. (1Sa 15:23) It is, therefore, unscriptural to speak of Jehovah’s communication with his servants as a manifestation of “good” divination. Truthfinder |
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52 | What language did Jesus speak? | Acts 21:40 | Truthfinder | 71052 | ||
Hi, I understand that Jesus spoke at least, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Latin. On this question there is considerable difference of opinion among scholars. However, concerning languages used in Palestine when Jesus Christ was on earth, Professor G. Ernest Wright states: "Various languages were undoubtedly to be heard on the streets of the major cities. Greek and Aramaic were evidently the common tongues, and most of the urban peoples could probably understand both even in such 'modern' or 'western' cities as Caesarea and Samaria where Greek was the more common. Roman soldiers and officials might be heard conversing in Latin, while orthodox Jews may well have spoken a late variety of Hebrew with one another, a language that we know to have been neither classical Hebrew nor Aramaic, despite its similarities to both." Commenting further, on the language spoken by Jesus Christ, Professor Wright says: "The language spoken by Jesus has been much debated. We have no certain way of knowing whether he could speak Greek or Latin, but in his teaching ministry he regularly used either Aramaic or the highly Aramaized popular Hebrew. When Paul addressed the mob in the Temple, it is said that he spoke Hebrew (Acts 21:40). Scholars generally have taken this to mean Aramaic, but it is quite possible that a popular Hebrew was then the common tongue among the Jews."-Biblical Archaeology, 1963, p. 243. Truthfinder |
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53 | I NEED SOMEONE TO EXPOUND ON ROM 8:20 | Rom 8:20 | Truthfinder | 71113 | ||
Hi, Perhaps this will shed some light. After outlining the Christian conflict, Paul goes on to speak of the joint heirs with Christ as “sons of God.” Then he refers to others of mankind as “the creation” and presents the marvelous purpose of God “that the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:12-21. In due time all who live in heaven and on earth will be holy, for “the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:20, 21. “The eager expectation of the creation is waiting for the revealing of the sons of God. For the creation was subjected to futility, not by its own will but through him that subjected it, on the basis of hope that the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:14, 17, 19-21. According to Paul’s words at Romans 8:20, 21, Jehovah God did not destroy man’s forefather Adam at the time of his sin, but he allowed men to be born from an imperfect father, with futility facing them not because of any deliberate fault of their own, but because of inherited imperfection. However, God did not leave them without hope but kindly set forth hope through the promised “seed” (Ge 3:15; 22:18), who is Jesus Christ. (Ga 3:16) Doubtless because the time of Messiah’s first coming had been forecast in prophecy, the preaching of John the Baptizer roused the expectations of the nation of Israel. (Lu 3:15; Da 9:24-27) Jesus fulfilled that hope by his ministry, death, and resurrection. But the great hope for mankind in general, both the living and the dead, lies in the Kingdom of Christ, when he and his joint heirs serve as heavenly kings and priests. Then mankind exercising faith will eventually be released from the corruption of imperfection and sin and will come to the full status of “children of God.” Their hope is reinforced by God’s resurrection of his Son more than 1,900 years ago.—Ac 17:31; 23:6; 24:15. “Insight to the Scriptures”. Truthfinder |
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54 | True believer | Rom 10:9 | Truthfinder | 95676 | ||
Hi Cris, I seriously doubt these verses were part of the original. Many spurious texts have appeared through time and serious Bible students have availed themselves of such discoveries in order to have the "truth" of God's Word. This stresses the need for being discreet in selecting what Bible translations to use and conclude what was original. Truthfinder |
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55 | Who are "the other Gods"? | 2 Cor 4:4 | Truthfinder | 75012 | ||
Hi, Actually the phrase “other gods” appears 84 times in the Bible and 5 times as “other god”. And you are exactly correct in saying that all are found only in the OT. Actually, anything that is worshiped can be termed a god, inasmuch as the worshiper attributes to it might greater than his own and venerates it. A person can even let his belly be a god. (Ro 16:18; Php 3:18, 19) The Bible makes mention of many gods (Ps 86:8; 1Co 8:5, 6), but it shows that the gods of the nations are valueless gods. Ps 96:5 says; ”For all the gods of the peoples are valueless gods; But as for Jehovah, he has made the very heavens.” At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW) At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ [God Almighty], which is applied to Jehovah at Genesis 17:1). Yes, all these are indeed “gods”, “other gods” if you will, as the term actually references. But there is truly only one Almighty God, Jesus’ Father, Jehovah. Truthseeker |
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56 | Where did the Holy Spirit go? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83325 | ||
Hi Graceful, Was God’s son Jesus, a spirit person like his Father, before coming to earth? (Php 2:5-8), but later “became flesh,” residing among mankind as the man Jesus. (Joh 1:14) Completing his earthly course, was he “put to death in the flesh, but [was] made alive in the spirit.” (1Pe 3:18) His Father resurrected him, granted his Son’s request to be glorified alongside the Father with the glory he had had in his prehuman state (Joh 17:4, 5), and God made him “a life-giving spirit.” (1Co 15:45)?? Did Jesus thus became again invisible to human sight, dwelling “in unapproachable light, whom not one of men has seen or can see.” that 1Ti 6:14-16 speaks of? Truthfinder |
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57 | Was Jesus' spirit abandoned? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83420 | ||
“E´li, E´li, la´ma sa·bach·tha´ni?” (“My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”) (Mt 27:46; Mr 15:34) Hi Dan58, You write: I still don't understand in what sense Jesus was abandoned by God. I don't see whether or not Jesus' spirit was separated from God. I haven't checked the discussion on other verses that has already been posted. Would someone summarize the issues raised in other threads?Jesus’ question was a quotation from a psalm of David. (Ps. 22:1) If we look at David’s case, the question related to a momentary condition of abandonment. Surrounded by enemies, David found himself in a situation that made it appear that he was completely forsaken by his God, Jehovah. The tremendous strain resulting therefrom moved David to ask why it had happened despite his being unaware of any guilt. But David had not lost faith, for in the same psalm he prayed: “Do make haste to my assistance.” Ps. 22:16-19.So, in the same sence, when uttering the words of Psalm 22:1, Jesus keenly sensed that his Father had momentarily withdrawn his protection and “forsaken” or released him into the hands of his enemies, to die as an accursed criminal on a stake. (Gal. 3:13) In asking “why,” Jesus did not imply that he did not know the reason for this abandonment nor was he expecting an answer from his Father. The situation is comparable to that of a Christian who knows the reason for human suffering but is moved, under the weight of intense difficulties, to ask “why” either silently or audibly. The questioner thereby reveals that he has no reason to think that the suffering is due to his transgressions. Thus, besides fulfilling Psalm 22:1, Jesus’ outcry evidently served to confirm his innocence and focused on the real purpose for his suffering. (Matt. 27:46) compare also John 12:27, 28, 33. Truthfinder |
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58 | Jesus is the Lord of Sabbath | Col 2:16 | Truthfinder | 83322 | ||
Hi, Well, while on earth, Jesus Christ referred to himself as “Lord of the sabbath.” (Mt 12:8) The literal Sabbath day, which was meant to bring the Israelites relief from their labors, was “a shadow of the things to come, but the reality belongs to the Christ.” (Col 2:16, 17) In connection with those “things to come,” there is a sabbath of which Jesus is to be the Lord. As Lord of lords, Christ will rule all the earth for a thousand years. (Re 19:16; 20:6) During his earthly ministry, Jesus performed some of his most outstanding miraculous works on the Sabbath. (Lu 13:10-13; Joh 5:5-9; 9:1-14) This to me, shows the kind of relief that he will bring as he raises or resurrects mankind to spiritual and physical perfection during his coming Millennial Rule, which thus will be like a period of sabbath rest for the earth and mankind. (Re 21:1-4). Truthfinder |
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59 | Clarification please? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Truthfinder | 94210 | ||
Hi Charis72, Allow me to jump in. I have not read any of your posts. In other words, I do not know you so in way of a little explaination, when most use the word "Lord" and it refers to Almighty God, I use Jehovah, since that is his name and it clearifies whom I am referrencing. Likewise when referencing Jesus as Lord I use "Lord Jesus". Yes, the apostle Paul stated at 2 Timothy 3:16: “All Scripture is inspired of God.” The phrase “inspired of God” translates the compound Greek word the·o´pneu·stos, meaning, literally, “God-breathed” or “breathed by God.” Thus it is the state of being moved by or produced under the direction of, in this case God. He "moved" these some 40 different Bible writers to write exactly what he wanted written. As the apostle states, God spoke “in many ways” to his servants in pre-Christian times. (Heb 1:1, 2) In at least one case, that of the Ten Commandments, or Decalogue, the information was divinely supplied in written form, merely requiring copying into the scrolls or other material used by Moses. (Ex 31:18; De 10:1-5) In other cases, information was transmitted by verbal dictation, word for word. When presenting the large body of laws and statutes of God’s covenant with Israel, Jehovah instructed Moses: “Write down for yourself these words.” (Ex 34:27) The prophets also were often given specific messages to deliver, and these were then recorded, forming part of the Scriptures.—1Ki 22:14; Jer 1:7; 2:1; 11:1-5; Eze 3:4; 11:5. Among still other methods used for conveying information to the Bible writers were dreams and visions. Dreams, or night visions as they were sometimes called, evidently superimposed a picture of God’s message or purpose on the mind of the sleeping person. (Da 2:19; 7:1) Visions given while the person was conscious were an even more frequently used vehicle of communication of God’s thoughts to the mind of the writer, the revelation being impressed pictorially upon the conscious mind. (Eze 1:1; Da 8:1; Re 9:17) Some visions were received when the person had fallen into a trance. Though conscious, the person apparently was so absorbed by the vision received during the trance as to be oblivious to all else around him.—Ac 10:9-17; 11:5-10; 22:17-21. Angelic messengers were used on many occasions to transmit the divine messages. (Heb 2:2) Such messengers played a larger part in the transmission of information than is at times apparent. Thus, whereas the Law given to Moses is presented as spoken by God, both Stephen and Paul show that God used his angels in transmitting that legal code. (Ac 7:53; Ga 3:19) Since the angels spoke in Jehovah’s name, the message they presented could therefore properly be called “the word of Jehovah.”—Ge 22:11, 12, 15-18; Zec 1:7, 9. No matter what the particular means employed for the transmission of the messages, all parts of the Scriptures would be of the same quality, all of them being inspired, or “God-breathed.” I hope I have answered your question. Truthfinder |
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60 | Searching for the truth | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75199 | ||
A Study of the Word--by Truthseeker Hi FytRobert I have compiled a study of the word “Worship”. When I quote from the Greek Septuagint Version of the Bible, I use the Baxter edition and Charles Thomson edition. Please take the time and look up the cited verses but not quoted. (For space sake) What prompted this study is the verse found in Hebrews 1:6 which reads: “But when he again brings his First-born into the inhabited earth, he says: ‘And let all God’s angels worship him.’” The writer of Hebrews (Paul) is here quoting from Psalm 97:7, which reads (in part): “Bow down to him, all you gods.” The Septuagint Version, from which this writer evidently quoted, reads: “Worship Him all ye His angels.”—C. Thomson. These texts seem to raise a problem because they appear to conflict with Jesus’ plain statement to Satan the Devil: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” -- Matt 4:10. The Greek word rendered “worship” at Hebrews 1:6 is pro·sky·ne o. This Greek word is also used at Psalm 97:7 in the Septuagint to translate the Hebrew sha·hhah. What is the sense of these Hebrew and Greek terms? Sha·hhah means basically “to bow down.” (Prov. 12:25) Such bowing might be done as an act of respect toward another human, as to a king (1 Sam. 24:8; 2 Sam. 24:20) or a prophet. (2 Ki. 2:15) Abraham bowed down to the Canaanite sons of Heth from whom he sought to buy a burial place. (Gen. 23:7) Isaac’s blessing on Jacob called for national groups and Jacob’s own “brothers” to bow down to him.—Gen. 27:29; compare 49:8. From the above examples it is clear that this Hebrew term of itself does not necessarily have a religious sense or signify worship. Nevertheless, in a large number of cases it is used in connection with worship, either of the true God (Ex. 24:1; Ps. 95:6) or of false gods—Deut. 4:19; 8:19. Bowing down to humans as an act of respect was admissible, but bowing to anyone other than Jehovah as a deity was prohibited by God. (Ex. 23:24; 34:14) Similarly, the worshipful bowing down to religious images or to any created thing was positively condemned. (Ex. 20:4, 5; Lev. 26:1; Deut. 4:15-19) Thus, in the Hebrew Scriptures, when certain of Jehovah’s servants prostrated themselves before angels, they only did so as recognizing that these were God’s representatives, not as rendering obeisance to them as deities.—Josh. 5:13-15; Gen. 18:1-3. The Greek pro·sky·ne·o corresponds closely with the Hebrew sha·hhah as to conveying the thought of both obeisance to creatures and worship to God or a deity. While the manner of expressing the obeisance is perhaps not so prominent in pro·sky·ne·o as in sha·hhah, where the Hebrew term graphically conveys the thought of prostration or bowing down, some lexicographers suggest that originally the Greek term did emphatically portray this idea. As with the Hebrew term, the context must be considered to determine whether pro·sky·ne o refers to obeisance solely in the form of deep respect or obeisance in the form of religious worship. Where reference is directly to God (John 4:20-24; 1 Cor. 14:25) or to false gods and their idols (Acts 7:43; Rev. 9:20), it is evident that the obeisance goes beyond that acceptably or customarily rendered to men and enters the field of worship. So, too, where the object of the obeisance is left unstated, its being directed to God being understood. (John 12:20; Acts 8:27; Heb. 11:21) On the other hand, the action of those of the “synagogue of Satan” who are made to “come and do obeisance” before the feet of Christians is clearly not worship.—Rev. 3:9. Obeisance to a human king is found in Jesus’ illustration at Matthew 18:26. It is also evident that this was the kind of obeisance the astrologers rendered to the child Jesus, “born king of the Jews,” and also that Herod professed interest in expressing, and that the soldiers mockingly rendered to Jesus before his impalement. They clearly did not view Jesus as God or as a deity.—Matt. 2:2, 8; Mark 15:19. (Continued) |
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