Results 41 - 60 of 74
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | sons of god as in early gen | Gen 6:2 | Truthfinder | 80869 | ||
Hi again Phil, In further support of what I already noted and in reply to Radioman2 I write: Only after carefull study have I come to understand that angels definitely did materialize human bodies on occasion, even eating and drinking with men. (Ge 18:1-22; 19:1-3) Jesus' statement concerning resurrected men and women not marrying or being given in marriage but being like the "angels in heaven", as you argue, actually shows that marriages between such heavenly creatures do not exist, no male and female distinction being indicated among them. (Mt 22:30) But this does not say that such angelic creatures could not materialize human forms and enter marriage relations with human women. It should be noted that Jude's reference to angels as not keeping their original position and to them as forsaking their "proper dwelling place" (certainly here referring to an abandoning of the spirit realm) is immediately followed by the statement: "So too Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities about them, after they in the same manner as the foregoing ones had committed fornication excessively and gone out after flesh for unnatural use, are placed before us as a warning example." (Jude 6, 7) Thus, the combined weight of the Scriptural evidence points to angelic deviation, the performance of acts contrary to their spirit nature, occurring in the days of Noah. There seems to me to be no valid reason, then, for doubting that the 'sons of God' of Genesis 6:2-4 were angelic sons. Truthfinder |
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42 | queen of heaven | Jer 7:18 | Truthfinder | 80514 | ||
HI, The Scriptures do not specifically identify the "queen of the heavens." It has been suggested that this goddess is to be identified with the Sumerian fertility goddess Inanna, Babylonian Ishtar. The name Inanna literally means "Queen of Heaven." The corresponding Babylonian goddess Ishtar was qualified in the Akkadian texts by the epithets "queen of the heavens" and "queen of the heavens and of the stars." Mary is much spoken of in Catholic groups as the "Queen of Heaven" and the "Queen of Peace." This is not a new thought, for early apocryphal writings ascribed great honor to her as the "Mother of God." But let us go back much before that, into ancient Babylon with its pagan religion, to find its beginning. "Under the name of the 'Mother of the gods,' the goddess queen of Babylon became an object of almost universal worship. 'The Mother of the gods,' says Clericus, 'was worshipped by the Persians, the Syrians, and all the kings of Europe and Asia, with the most profound religious veneration." How did the practice creep into the "Christian" world? "The worship of the goddess-mother with the child in her arms continued to be observed in Egypt till Christianity entered. . . . With the generality it came only in name. Instead, therefore, of the Babylonian goddess being cast out, in too many cases her name only was changed. She was called the Virgin Mary, and, with her child, was worshipped with the same idolatrous feeling by professing Christians, as formerly by open and avowed Pagans."-The Two Babylons, by Alexander Hislop. Truthfinder |
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43 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80450 | ||
Hi all, I was wondering how everyone that reads this understands just what the original Greek word for hell in this verse means? Acts 2:31. (haides) Please do your research, back by scripture etc :). Then and only then can we understand what Acts 2:31 means. Truthfinder |
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44 | Did Jesus Drink Wine? | Bible general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 80388 | ||
Hi Tim, I am writting in a hurry not proofing anything so please understand. Matt 26:29 indicates to me Jesus drank wine. Jesus drank the wine at the annual Passover celebration but not at the Lord’s Supper where he offered it to the eleven apostles. Lu 22:15-18, 20. Also Joh 19:28-30 and Lu 23:36, 37 indicates to me that Jesus drank wine. I wrote in the above post: Self-righteous religious leaders in Jesus’ day criticized him for occasionally drinking wine. Said Jesus: “John the Baptist has come neither eating bread nor drinking wine, but you say, ‘He has a demon.’ The Son of man has come eating and drinking, but you say, ‘Look! A man gluttonous and given to drinking wine!’” (Luke 7:33, 34) What would have been the point of contrast between Jesus’ drinking and John’s not drinking if Jesus had merely been drinking nonalcoholic grape juice? Remember, it was said of John in contrast, that he was to “drink no wine and strong drink at all.”—Luke 1:15. Truthfinder |
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45 | Was the wine Jesus drank fermented? | Bible general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 80279 | ||
Hi IHS, There are a number of original-language terms that usually designate some kind of wine (Heb., ti·rohsh´ [Ge 27:28, 37; Ho 2:8, 9, 22]; Heb., che´mer [De 32:14; Isa 27:2] and its corresponding Aramaic term chamar´ [Da 5:1, 2, 4, 23]; as well as Gr., gleu´kos [Ac 2:13]). But the Hebrew word ya´yin is found most frequently in the Scriptures. It first appears in Genesis 9:20-24, where the reference is to Noah’s planting a vineyard after the Flood and then becoming intoxicated on the wine. The Greek word oi´nos (basically corresponding to the Hebrew term ya´yin) first occurs in Jesus’ comments on the inadvisability of using old wineskins for new, partially fermented wine, as the pressure developed through fermentation would burst the old wineskins.—Mt 9:17; Mr 2:22; Lu 5:37, 38. So, clearly wine was wine. Truthfinder |
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46 | who were the parents of mary magdalene | NT general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 80276 | ||
Hi Angie, The Bible does not provide for us sufficent information to tie Mary Magdalene to King David. There are six different Mary's in the Christian Greek Scriptures and everything said concerning her from the Bible is as follows: First her distinguishing name (meaning "Of (Belonging to) Magdala") likely stems from the town of Magdala on the western shore of the Sea of Galilee about halfway between Capernaum and Tiberias. There is no record of Jesus' ever visiting this town, though he spent a great deal of time in the surrounding area. Nor is it certain that it was Mary's hometown or place of residence. Since Luke refers to her as "Mary the so-called Magdalene," some think he implies something special or peculiar.-Lu 8:2. Jesus expelled seven demons from Mary Magdalene, reason enough for her to put faith in him as the Messiah and for her to back up such faith with outstanding works of devotion and service. She is first mentioned in the account of Jesus' second year of preaching, when he and his apostles were "journeying from city to city and from village to village, preaching and declaring the good news of the kingdom of God." Together with Joanna the wife of Herod's man in charge, Susanna, and other women, Mary Magdalene continued ministering to the needs of Jesus and his apostles out of her own belongings.-Lu 8:1-3. The most prominent notice of Mary Magdalene is in connection with the death and resurrection of Jesus. When Jesus, as the Lamb of God, was led to the slaughter, she was among the women "who had accompanied Jesus from Galilee to minister to him" and were "viewing from a distance" as Jesus hung on the Gr. (stau rous) (Vine's upright stake). In her company were Jesus' mother Mary, Salome, and also "the other Mary".-Mt 27:55, 56, 61; Mr 15:40; Joh 19:25. After Jesus' burial, Mary Magdalene and other women went to prepare spices and perfumed oil before the Sabbath began at sundown. Then following the Sabbath, at the break of dawn, on the first day of the week, Mary and the other women brought the perfumed oil to the tomb. (Mt 28:1; Mr 15:47; 16:1, 2; Lu 23:55, 56; 24:1) When Mary saw the tomb was open and apparently empty, she rushed off to tell the startling news to Peter and John, who ran to the tomb. (Joh 20:1-4) By the time Mary got back to the tomb, Peter and John had left, and it was now that she checked inside and was stunned at seeing two angels in white. Then she turned back and saw Jesus standing. Thinking him to be the gardener, she asked where the body was, that she might care for it. When he replied "Mary!" his identity was immediately revealed to her and she impulsively embraced him, exclaiming, "Rab·bo´ni!" But there was no time now for expressions of earthly affection. Jesus would be with them only a short time. Mary must hasten to inform the other disciples of his resurrection and that Jesus was ascending, as he said, "to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God."-Joh 20:11-18. Hope this helps. Truthfinder |
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47 | sons of god as in early gen | Gen 6:2 | Truthfinder | 80178 | ||
Hi Phil, The first mention of "sons of the true God" is at Genesis 6:2-4. There such sons are spoken of as 'beginning to notice the daughters of men, that they were good-looking; and they went taking wives for themselves, namely, all whom they chose,' this prior to the global Flood. Many commentators hold that these 'sons of God' were themselves human, being in reality men of the line of Seth. They base their argument on the fact that Seth's line was that through which godly Noah came, whereas the other lines from Adam, that of Cain and those of any other sons born to Adam (Ge 5:3, 4), were destroyed at the Flood. So, they say that the taking as wives "the daughters of men" by "the sons of the true God" means that Sethites began to marry into the line of wicked Cain. There is, however, nothing to show that God made any such distinction between family lines at this point. Corroborating Scriptural evidence is lacking to support the view that intermarriage between the lines of Seth and Cain is what is here meant, or that such marriages were responsible for the birth of "mighty ones" as mentioned in verse 4. It is true that the expression "sons of men [or "of mankind"]" (which those favoring the earlier mentioned view would contrast with the expression 'sons of God') is frequently used in an unfavorable sense, but this is not consistently so.-Compare Ps 4:2; 57:4; Pr 8:22, 30, 31; Jer 32:18, 19; Da 10:16. Angelic sons of God. On the other hand, there is an explanation that finds corroborating evidence in the Scriptures. The expression "sons of the true God" next occurs at Job 1:6, and here the reference is obviously to spirit sons of God assembled in God's presence, among whom Satan, who had been "roving about in the earth," also appeared. (Job 1:7; see also 2:1, 2.) Again at Job 38:4-7 "the sons of God" who 'shouted in applause' when God 'laid the cornerstone' of the earth clearly were angelic sons and not humans descended from Adam (as yet not even created). So, too, at Psalm 89:6 "the sons of God" are definitely heavenly creatures, not earthlings.-See GOD (Hebrew Terms). The identification of "the sons of the true God" at Genesis 6:2-4 with angelic creatures is objected to by those holding the previously mentioned view because they say the context relates entirely to human wickedness. This objection is not valid, however, since the wrongful interjection of spirit creatures in human affairs most certainly could contribute to or accelerate the growth of human wickedness. Wicked spirit creatures during Jesus' time on earth, though not then materializing in visible form, were responsible for wrong human conduct of an extreme nature. The mention of a mixing into human affairs by angelic sons of God could reasonably appear in the Genesis account precisely because of its explaining to a considerable degree the gravity of the situation that had developed on earth prior to the Flood. Truthfinder |
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48 | Help on the 69th, 70th Week of Daniel | Dan 9:24 | Truthfinder | 80062 | ||
Hi Amber_G This is a prophecy that definitely shows Daniel to be an authentic prophet. It reads, in part: "There are seventy weeks that have been determined upon your people and upon your holy city, in order to terminate the transgression, and to finish off sin, and to make atonement for error . . . And you should know and have the insight that from the going forth of the word to restore and to rebuild Jerusalem until Messiah the Leader, there will be seven weeks, also sixty-two weeks (making 69 in all). . . . And after the sixty-two weeks (that is, 7 plus 62, or after the 69th week) Messiah will be cut off . . . And he must keep the covenant in force for the many for one week (the 70th); and at the half of the week he will cause sacrifice and gift offering to cease."-Daniel 9:24-27. Many Jewish, Catholic, and Protestant Bible scholars agree that the "weeks" of this prophecy are weeks of years. The Revised Standard Version, Ecumenical Edition, reads: "Seventy weeks of years are decreed concerning your people." Those 490 years began in 455 B.C.E. when Nehemiah was authorized by Persian king Artaxerxes "to restore and to rebuild Jerusalem." (Nehemiah 2:1-8) Sixty-nine weeks of years later, that is, in 29 C.E., Jesus was baptized and anointed, becoming the Christ, or the Anointed One, the Messiah. "At the half of the (70th) week," in 33 C.E., he was "cut off." His sacrificial death made atonement for the sins of mankind, thus causing the animal sacrifices under the Law of Moses "to cease." Because of this reliable prophecy, first-century Jewish people "knew that the seventy weeks of years fixed by Daniel were drawing to a close; nobody was surprised to hear John the Baptist announce that the kingdom of God had drawn near."-Manuel Biblique, by Bacuez and Vigouroux. Truthfinder |
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49 | What about a passage not in early ms? | Mark 16:9 | Truthfinder | 79898 | ||
Hi all, One of my favorite subjects. Most certainly, in my opinion, was it only honest to let the reader know that a passage did not appear in the earliest manuscripts. I personally have considerable works on ancient manuscript studies and as Tim said makes for a most interesting study. One of the very oldest is a fragment of John's Gospel which dates back to about 125 C.E. Thru time as the trickle of newly discovered ancient Greek manuscripts turned into a virtual flood, scholars were able to compare them critically. But this textual criticism should not be confused with "higher criticism," which tends to lessen respect for the Bible as the Word of God. Textual criticism involves a careful comparison of all known manuscripts of the Bible in order to determine the true or original reading, eliminating any additions. To illustrate how this works, imagine what would happen if you asked 200 persons to make a handwritten copy of a longhand manuscript. Most of them would make errors, some minor and others more significant. But they would not all make the identical mistakes. If, then, an alert individual took all 200 copies and compared them, he could isolate the errors. An error in one or two would show up because it would not be in the other 198 having the correct reading. Thus, with effort he could come up with an exact script of the original document even if he never saw it. Truthfinder |
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50 | Truthfinder, why aren't Jews His people? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79335 | ||
Hi Searcher, Note my comments to Tim regarding your question. Truthfinder |
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51 | Originals? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79334 | ||
Hi Tim Most believe that the nation of Israel today is still God’s chosen nation. When Jesus Christ was on earth, it was still God’s nation or channel. Any who wished to serve Jehovah had to do so in association with his chosen nation. (John 4:22) But Moses had shown that the privilege of being stewards of “the things revealed” also carried responsibilities. He said: “The things revealed belong to us and to our sons to time indefinite, that we may carry out all the words of this law.” (Deuteronomy 29:29) That “time indefinite” came to an end in 33 C.E. Why? Because, as a nation, the Jews failed to ‘carry out all the words of the law.’ Particularly, the Bible, indicates that the Jewish nation lost God’s favor and protection when they rejected his Son, Jesus Christ. (Acts 3:13, 14, 19) Jesus himself plainly told them: “The kingdom of God will be taken from you and be given to a nation producing its fruits.”—Matthew 21:43. They failed to welcome the Seed, Jesus Christ, even though the Law had been, in effect, a “tutor leading to Christ.” (Galatians 3:24) Because of this failure, Jehovah chose another channel for “the things revealed.” Paul identified it to the Ephesians when he wrote that “there might be made known through the congregation the greatly diversified wisdom of God, according to the eternal purpose that he formed in connection with the Christ, Jesus our Lord.” (Ephesians 3:10, 11) Yes, it was the Christian congregation, born at Pentecost 33 C.E., that was entrusted with the new “things revealed.” As a group, anointed Christians served as “the faithful and discreet slave” appointed to provide spiritual food at the proper time. (Matthew 24:45) What the Jewish writer of Romans 11:26 called “all Israel” he called “the Israel of God” at Galatians 6:16. But if the natural Jews in the Republic of Israel and around the globe do not make up “all Israel,” who are its members? This question is a vital one, as the natural Jews of today do not know to which of Israel’s 12 tribes they belong. They have rabbis but no priesthood, no high priest on earth, no temple at Jerusalem and no altar there on which to offer sacrifices according to the Law God gave to them through Moses. All of this has been lacking since the Romans destroyed Jerusalem in 70 C.E. There also is no evidence that the God whose name they refuse to pronounce is with them any longer as a nation. In Romans, the text you quoted, Paul could not have believed that the Israelites as a nation still had a special place with God, for the apostle expressed “great grief and unceasing pain in [his] heart” over their unresponsiveness to God’s goodness. (Romans 9:2-5) At Romans 9:6 Paul adds: “However, it is not as though the word of God [to Abraham] had failed. For not all who spring from [natural] Israel are really ‘Israel.’” Note what Paul is saying: that because the Jews rejected Christ, God no longer considered them to be Israel! The anointed congregation of Jesus Christ’s followers was now the real “Israel,” the instrument through which God would bless all mankind.—1 Peter 2:9; Galatians 3:29; 6:16; Genesis 22:18. God, though, did not reject the Jewish people as individuals, for Paul pointed out: “For I also am an Israelite.” Yes, individuals within the Jewish nation, like Paul, could become part of spiritual Israel if they accepted Christ. Only “a remnant,” a minority, chose to do so.—Romans 11:1, 5. Truthfinder |
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52 | Isn’t this playing with the text? | Rev 22:18 | Truthfinder | 79197 | ||
Hi Radioman2, As you comment, Revelation 22:18,19 shows the seriousness of taking anything away or making an addition to God’s word. If the original had God’s name and it was changed with Lord or any substitute that would be seriously wrong. Likewise if it was not and added then equally that would be wrong. You be the judge after studying these 3 sites. By the way the translations that contain the Divine Name state that they have “restored” the Divine Name as opposed to “adding” it. 1) These two sites list several translations that use Jehovah in the New Testament.: http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/yhwh.htm Also http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/jhvh.htm 2)This site contains information that explains why Jehovah appears in the New Testament of the NWT. http://jehovah.to/exegesis/ntstudies/yhwhnt.htm 3) In this site appears the appendix of the NWT with explanation: http://jehovah.to/exegesis/translation/nwterrors.htm Truthfinder |
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53 | life of moses | Bible general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 77525 | ||
Hi Surely, just give me your email and I will, mine is r21212@yahoo.com |
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54 | life of moses | Bible general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 77523 | ||
Hi Surely, just give me your email and I will, mine is r21212@yahoo.com |
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55 | Which reading? | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 77287 | ||
I agree, Tim | ||||||
56 | Exodus 3:14 connected to John 8:58? | Ex 3:14 | Truthfinder | 76078 | ||
Part 2 Although the natural English translations differ, there are two contexts of this kind in which Jesus uses the words egw eimi alone to identify himself: in 6:20, where the disciples are afraid of the apparition they see walking on the water, and Jesus reassures them by identifying himself, quite naturally, with these words, which translate into English as 'It is I'; and in 18:5, while Jesus acknowledges that he is Jesus of Nazareth by speaking the same words, which are naturally translated into English as 'I am he'. The syntactic difference between them is that in the former egw is the complement, the unexpressed subject being something equivalent to 'what you see', and in the latter egw is the subject, the unexpressed complement being 'Jesus of Nazareth'. In both these passages egw eimi is the natural Greek response [4] in the circumstances, as may be seen in 9:9, where the man cured of blindness uses exactly the same words to acknowledge his identity. The dramatic reaction of the arresting party in 18:6 is readily explained if we note that the confident authority of Jesus's presence was such that he defeated the merchants in the temple (2:15), and he simply walked away when the crowd was intent on throwing him over the brow of the hill near Nazareth (Luke 4:28-30). The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai egw eimi, [5] which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born', [6] if it were not for the obsession with the simple words 'I am'. If we take the Greek words in their natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd's violent reaction. For the emphasis on the words 'I am' we need to look back to God's words to Moses in Exodus 3:14, 'I am who I am. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: "I am has sent me to you".' The passage in its Hebrew form has been discussed by many commentators as something of a problem, with possibilities that the verb could mean 'I am', 'I will be', 'I become', or 'I will become', and the pronoun 'that', 'who', 'what', or even 'because'. Some see a need to emend the text, and some stress various critical principles as basic to its interpretation. A few refer to the Septuagint translation of the passage as relevant for understanding it. [7] (continued) Truthfinder |
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57 | Truthseekeer - Angels accepted worship? | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75235 | ||
Angels worshipped. Heb for worship(sha kah); Joshua 5:14 in King James: worship 99, bow 31, bow down 18, obeisance 9, reverence 5, fall down 3, themselves 2, stoop 1, crouch 1, miscellaneous 3 “And he said, Nay; but as captain of the host of the LORD am I now come. And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and did worship, and said unto him, What saith my lord unto his servant?” Also the American Standard translates the Hebrew as worship. And he said, Nay; but [as] prince of the host of Jehovah am I now come. And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and did worship, and said unto him, What saith my lord unto his servant? Gen. 18:2 “ When he raised his eyes, then he looked and there three men were standing some distance from him. When he caught sight of them he began running to meet them from the entrance of the tent and proceeded to bow down to the earth Gen. 23:7 “Thereupon Abraham got up and (worshipped) (sha kaw )(bowed down) (to) the natives, to the sons of Heth,” Hi Searcher, I noticed you provided your email in your profile. Searcher78@aol.com I have too, so if you’re interested in seeing what I have researched through the years perhaps email might be better. |
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58 | Searching for the truth | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75199 | ||
A Study of the Word--by Truthseeker Hi FytRobert I have compiled a study of the word “Worship”. When I quote from the Greek Septuagint Version of the Bible, I use the Baxter edition and Charles Thomson edition. Please take the time and look up the cited verses but not quoted. (For space sake) What prompted this study is the verse found in Hebrews 1:6 which reads: “But when he again brings his First-born into the inhabited earth, he says: ‘And let all God’s angels worship him.’” The writer of Hebrews (Paul) is here quoting from Psalm 97:7, which reads (in part): “Bow down to him, all you gods.” The Septuagint Version, from which this writer evidently quoted, reads: “Worship Him all ye His angels.”—C. Thomson. These texts seem to raise a problem because they appear to conflict with Jesus’ plain statement to Satan the Devil: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” -- Matt 4:10. The Greek word rendered “worship” at Hebrews 1:6 is pro·sky·ne o. This Greek word is also used at Psalm 97:7 in the Septuagint to translate the Hebrew sha·hhah. What is the sense of these Hebrew and Greek terms? Sha·hhah means basically “to bow down.” (Prov. 12:25) Such bowing might be done as an act of respect toward another human, as to a king (1 Sam. 24:8; 2 Sam. 24:20) or a prophet. (2 Ki. 2:15) Abraham bowed down to the Canaanite sons of Heth from whom he sought to buy a burial place. (Gen. 23:7) Isaac’s blessing on Jacob called for national groups and Jacob’s own “brothers” to bow down to him.—Gen. 27:29; compare 49:8. From the above examples it is clear that this Hebrew term of itself does not necessarily have a religious sense or signify worship. Nevertheless, in a large number of cases it is used in connection with worship, either of the true God (Ex. 24:1; Ps. 95:6) or of false gods—Deut. 4:19; 8:19. Bowing down to humans as an act of respect was admissible, but bowing to anyone other than Jehovah as a deity was prohibited by God. (Ex. 23:24; 34:14) Similarly, the worshipful bowing down to religious images or to any created thing was positively condemned. (Ex. 20:4, 5; Lev. 26:1; Deut. 4:15-19) Thus, in the Hebrew Scriptures, when certain of Jehovah’s servants prostrated themselves before angels, they only did so as recognizing that these were God’s representatives, not as rendering obeisance to them as deities.—Josh. 5:13-15; Gen. 18:1-3. The Greek pro·sky·ne·o corresponds closely with the Hebrew sha·hhah as to conveying the thought of both obeisance to creatures and worship to God or a deity. While the manner of expressing the obeisance is perhaps not so prominent in pro·sky·ne·o as in sha·hhah, where the Hebrew term graphically conveys the thought of prostration or bowing down, some lexicographers suggest that originally the Greek term did emphatically portray this idea. As with the Hebrew term, the context must be considered to determine whether pro·sky·ne o refers to obeisance solely in the form of deep respect or obeisance in the form of religious worship. Where reference is directly to God (John 4:20-24; 1 Cor. 14:25) or to false gods and their idols (Acts 7:43; Rev. 9:20), it is evident that the obeisance goes beyond that acceptably or customarily rendered to men and enters the field of worship. So, too, where the object of the obeisance is left unstated, its being directed to God being understood. (John 12:20; Acts 8:27; Heb. 11:21) On the other hand, the action of those of the “synagogue of Satan” who are made to “come and do obeisance” before the feet of Christians is clearly not worship.—Rev. 3:9. Obeisance to a human king is found in Jesus’ illustration at Matthew 18:26. It is also evident that this was the kind of obeisance the astrologers rendered to the child Jesus, “born king of the Jews,” and also that Herod professed interest in expressing, and that the soldiers mockingly rendered to Jesus before his impalement. They clearly did not view Jesus as God or as a deity.—Matt. 2:2, 8; Mark 15:19. (Continued) |
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59 | Who are "the other Gods"? | 2 Cor 4:4 | Truthfinder | 75012 | ||
Hi, Actually the phrase “other gods” appears 84 times in the Bible and 5 times as “other god”. And you are exactly correct in saying that all are found only in the OT. Actually, anything that is worshiped can be termed a god, inasmuch as the worshiper attributes to it might greater than his own and venerates it. A person can even let his belly be a god. (Ro 16:18; Php 3:18, 19) The Bible makes mention of many gods (Ps 86:8; 1Co 8:5, 6), but it shows that the gods of the nations are valueless gods. Ps 96:5 says; ”For all the gods of the peoples are valueless gods; But as for Jehovah, he has made the very heavens.” At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW) At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ [God Almighty], which is applied to Jehovah at Genesis 17:1). Yes, all these are indeed “gods”, “other gods” if you will, as the term actually references. But there is truly only one Almighty God, Jesus’ Father, Jehovah. Truthseeker |
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60 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75010 | ||
Hi, God has only one personal name. Among the Hebrew words that are translated “God” is ´El, probably meaning “Mighty One; Strong One.” (Ge 14:18) It is used with reference to Jehovah, to other gods, and to men. It is also used extensively in the makeup of proper names, such as Elisha (meaning “God Is Salvation”) and Michael (“Who Is Like God?”). In some places ´El appears with the definite article (ha·´El´, literally, “the God”) with reference to Jehovah, thereby distinguishing him from other godsYou mentioned god in the Hebrew language elohim, but this doesn’t reference only God Almighty. Also you mention EL-SHADAII, also Hebrew for God Almighty. But if you speak another language then you could come up with thousands. Almighty God has only one name. That name is Je·ho´vah [the causative form, the imperfect state, of the Heb. verb ha·wah´ (become); meaning “He Causes to Become”]. The personal name of God. Isa 42:8 “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven images. Also Isa 54:5 “For your Grand Maker is your husbandly owner, Jehovah of armies being his name; and the Holy One of Israel is your Repurchaser. The God of the whole earth he will be called. Though Scripturally designated by such descriptive titles as “God,” “Sovereign Lord,” “Creator,” “Father,” “the Almighty,” and “the Most High,” his personality and attributes—who and what he is—are fully summed up and expressed only in this personal name. Ps 83:18. Many modern scholars and Bible translators advocate following the tradition of eliminating the distinctive name of God. They not only claim that its uncertain pronunciation justifies such a course but also hold that the supremacy and uniqueness of the true God make unnecessary his having a particular name. Such a view receives no support from the inspired Scriptures, either those of pre-Christian times or those of the Christian Greek Scriptures. The Tetragrammaton occurs 6,828 times in the Hebrew text printed in Biblia Hebraica and Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia. In the Hebrew Scriptures the New World Translation contains the divine name 6,973 times, because the translators took into account, among other things, the fact that in some places the scribes had replaced the divine name with ´Adho·nai´ or ´Elo·him´. (See NW appendix, pp. 1561, 1562.) The very frequency of the appearance of the name attests to its importance to the Bible’s Author, whose name it is. Its use throughout the Scriptures far outnumbers that of any of the titles, such as “Sovereign Lord” or “God,” applied to him. Noteworthy, also, is the importance given to names themselves in the Hebrew Scriptures and among Semitic peoples. Professor G. T. Manley points out: “A study of the word ‘name’ in the O[ld] T[estament] reveals how much it means in Hebrew. The name is no mere label, but is significant of the real personality of him to whom it belongs. . . . When a person puts his ‘name’ upon a thing or another person the latter comes under his influence and protection.”—New Bible Dictionary, edited by J. D. Douglas, 1985, p. 430; compare Everyman’s Talmud, by A. Cohen, 1949, p. 24; Ge 27:36; 1Sa 25:25; Ps 20:1; Pr 22:1 Truthseeker |
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