Results 3141 - 3160 of 3169
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: kalos Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
3141 | Sabbath laws....do? or don't? | Col 2:16 | kalos | 448 | ||
Are the Sabbath laws binding on Christians today? . . . We believe the Old Testament regulations governing Sabbath observances are ceremonial, not moral, aspects of the law. As such, they are no longer in force, but have passed away along with the sacrificial system, the Levitical priesthood, and all other aspects of Moses' law that prefigured Christ. . . . Here are the reasons we hold this view. . . . In Colossians 2:16-17, Paul explicitly refers to the Sabbath as a shadow of Christ, which is no longer binding since the substance (Christ) has come. It is quite clear in those verses that the weekly Sabbath is in view. The phrase "a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day" refers to the annual, monthly, and weekly holy days of the Jewish calendar (cf. 1 Chronicles 23:31; 2 Chronicles 2:4; 31:3; Ezekiel 45:17; Hosea 2:11). If Paul were referring to special ceremonial dates of rest in that passage, why would he have used the word "Sabbath?" He had already mentioned the ceremonial dates when he spoke of festivals and new moons. . . . The Sabbath was the sign to Israel of the Mosaic Covenant (Exodus 31:16-17; Ezekiel 20:12; Nehemiah 9:14). Since we are now under the New Covenant (Hebrews 8), we are no longer required to observe the sign of the Mosaic Covenant. . . . The New Testament never commands Christians to observe the Sabbath. . . . In our only glimpse of an early church worship service in the New Testament, the church met on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7). . . . Nowhere in the Old Testament are the Gentile nations commanded to observe the Sabbath or condemned for failing to do so. That is certainly strange if Sabbath observance were meant to be an eternal moral principle. . . . There is no evidence in the Bible of anyone keeping the Sabbath before the time of Moses, nor are there any commands in the Bible to keep the Sabbath before the giving of the law at Mt. Sinai. . . . When the Apostles met at the Jerusalem council (Acts 15), they did not impose Sabbath keeping on the Gentile believers. . . . The apostle Paul warned the Gentiles about many different sins in his epistles, but breaking the Sabbath was never one of them. . . . In Galatians 4:10-11, Paul rebukes the Galatians for thinking God expected them to observe special days (including the Sabbath). . . . In Romans 14:5, Paul forbids those who observe the Sabbath (these were no doubt Jewish believers) to condemn those who do not (Gentile believers). . . . The early church fathers, from Ignatius to Augustine, taught that the Old Testament Sabbath had been abolished and that the first day of the week (Sunday) was the day when Christians should meet for worship (contrary to the claim of many seventh-day sabbatarians who claim that Sunday worship was not instituted until the fourth century). . . . Sunday has not replaced Saturday as the Sabbath. Rather the Lord's Day is a time when believers gather to commemorate His resurrection, which occurred on the first day of the week. Every day to the believer is one of Sabbath rest, since we have ceased from our spiritual labor and are resting in the salvation of the Lord (Hebrews 4:9-11). . . . So while we still follow the pattern of designating one day of the week a day for the Lord's people to gather in worship, we do not refer to this as "the Sabbath." . . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Click on Previous Topics) |
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3142 | Abiding seems to be very important in sc | John 15:4 | kalos | 446 | ||
"To abide in Christ is, on the one hand, to have no known sin unjudged and unconfessed, no interest into which He is not brought, no life which He cannot share. On the other hand, the abiding one takes all burdens to Him, and draws all wisdom, life, and strength from Him. It is not unceasing consciousness of these things, and of Him, but that nothing is allowed in the life which separates from Him." (note at John 15:4, New Scofield Reference Bible, 1967, Oxford University Press) | ||||||
3143 | Is tithing for today? | Lev 27:30 | kalos | 444 | ||
Does God require me to give a tithe of all I earn? . . . Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary). . . . The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel. . . . Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation. . . . All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified. . . . New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government. . . . Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel. . . . The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver." © 2000 Grace to You . . . (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) . . . For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at bible.crosswalk.com |
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3144 | Are there angels before earth was formed | Gen 1:1 | kalos | 409 | ||
Angels were created before the creation of the world. Job 38:6-7 NASB "On what were its (i.e., earth's) bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy?" "Sons of God" are angels. The phrase is used of angels in Job 38:7; Job 1:6; Gen. 6:2; and elsewhere in Scripture . . . This interpretation harmonizes with the fact that Satan, himself an angelic being, joined them on the occasion spoken of in Job 1:6. . . . Ryrie writes "The phrase 'sons of God' is used in the O.T. almost exclusively of angels." . . . (from the Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press) | ||||||
3145 | do we have any free will? | Bible general Archive 1 | kalos | 369 | ||
Yes, we have limited free will. God has His plan and ultimate purposes. But if one chooses to reject God, that person will suffer the consequences. . . . The Bible says that God made hell only for Satan and his angels because it is a true statement. . . .Regarding sinning after we are saved: 1) 1 John 1:8 NASB If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. 2) Grace is not a license to sin (Rom 6). 3)Rom 3:28 NASB For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 4) It is true that one who is truly saved will manifest fruit or proofs of their salvation. BUT the evidences of genuine saving faith are the result, not the cause, of one's salvation. 5) Salvation is a free gift. It is not earned by keeping the law or doing good deeds, although these would be present in the life of a believer. 6) Eph 2:8-9 God's Word version: "God saved you through faith as an act of [grace]. You had nothing to do with it. Being saved is a gift from God. It's not the result of anything you've done, so no one can brag about it." | ||||||
3146 | Jesus condemn soldier to life on Earth? | Amos 1:1 | kalos | 356 | ||
There is no Scripture reference regarding this question. And that is because the event you described in the film The Seventh Seal is not recorded in the Bible. | ||||||
3147 | Isai 41:2 referring to Christ or Cyrus? | Isaiah | kalos | 355 | ||
Is 41:2 NASB "Who has aroused one from the east Whom He calls in righteousness to His feet? He delivers up nations before him And subdues kings. He makes them like dust with his sword, As the wind-driven chaff with his bow." . . . The "man from the east" refers to Cyrus, not Christ. . . . "one from the east. The Lord anointed Cyrus the Great, king of Persia, to accomplish His righteous will by conquering Babylon in 539 B.C. and allowing some of the Jewish exiles to return to Jerusalem . . . He founded the Persian Empire and ruled from ca. 550 to 530 B.C." . . . (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1015) |
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3148 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | kalos | 352 | ||
WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? (continued from previous message) Occasionally someone will suggest that God's election is based on His foreknowledge of certain events. This argument suggests that God simply looks into the future to see who will believe, and He chooses those whom He sees choosing Him. Notice that 1 Peter 1:2 says the elect are chosen "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," and Romans 8:29 says, "whom He foreknew, He also predestined." And if divine foreknowledge simply means God's knowledge of what will happen in advance, then these arguments may appear to have some weight behind them. But that is not the biblical meaning of "foreknowledge." When the Bible speaks of God's foreknowledge, it refers to God's establishment of a love relationship with that person. The word "know," in both the Old and New Testament, refers to much more than mere cognitive knowledge of a person. Such passages as Hosea 13:4-5; Amos 3:2 (KJV); and Romans 11:2 clearly indicate this. For example, 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." Surely this means more than that God the Father looked into the future to behold Christ! It means He had an eternal, loving relationship with Him. The same is true of the elect, whom we are told God "foreknew" (Romans 8:29). That means He knew them--he loved them--before the foundation of the world. If God's choice of the elect is unconditional, does this rule out human responsibility? Paul asks and answers that very question in Romans 9:19-20. He says God's choice of the elect is an act of mercy. Left to themselves, even the elect would persist in sin and be lost, because they are taken from the same fallen lump of clay as the rest of humanity. God alone is responsible for their salvation, but that does not eradicate the responsibility of those who persist in sin and are lost--because they do it willfully, and not under compulsion. They are responsible for their sin, not God. The Bible affirms human responsibility right alongside the doctrine of divine sovereignty. Moreover, the offer of mercy in the gospel is extended to all alike. Isaiah 55:1 and Revelation 22:17 call "whosoever will" to be saved. Isaiah 45:22 and Acts 17:30 command all men to turn to God, repent and be saved. First Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 tell us that God is not willing that any should perish, but desires that all should be saved. Finally, the Lord Jesus said that, "the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37). In summary, we can say that God has had a special love relationship with the elect from all eternity, and on the basis of that love relationship chosen them for salvation. The ultimate question of why God chose some for salvation and left others in their sinful state is one that we, with our finite knowledge, cannot answer. We do know that God's attributes always are in perfect harmony with each other, so that God's sovereignty will always operate in perfect harmony with His goodness, love, wisdom, and justice. For further study: John MacArthur, The Love of God (Dallas: Word, 1996). J. I. Packer, Evangelism and the Sovereignty of God (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1961). © 2000 Grace to You . . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) |
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3149 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | kalos | 351 | ||
I want to thank you for the dialogue we've been having. I do appreciate your views and I hope I can be of some help. Of course, the Calvinism vs. Arianism debate has been raging for centuries. It is said that every Christian believes in Election; but not every Christian defines Election in the same way. Because of the length of my answer, I will send this in 2 parts. . . . WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence. . . . The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death. . . . The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him." . . . This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed." . . . Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul." . . . Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified." . . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will." . . . Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God. In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation." . . . Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity." . . . (article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives) To be continued in next message. |
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3150 | Do you agree with my personal opinion? | 1 Cor 7:15 | kalos | 340 | ||
I want to thank you and others for their replies to my question. Yes, I do agree with your personal opinion regarding marriage and I thank you for your answer. However, my original question remains unanswered. My question is not whether the New Testament provides grounds for divorce. Clearly it does -- sexual immorailty or desertion. My question is not how do Christians feel about divorce. It is not "Do you recommend divorce?" . . . Perhaps I didn't clearly state my original question. Let me make it clear. What I'm trying to find out is "What is divorce? What does the word divorce mean?" When the Jews, Romans and Greeks in the time of Christ's earthly ministry -- when they heard the word divorce, what did they understand it to mean? Is divorce merely a legal separation from bed and board? OR is it the dissolution of the marriage bond just as though that marriage had never existed? If it is the latter, then would not the right to divorce carry with it the right to remarry? Please don't misunderstand me. My question is not is it OK to divorce or should Christians divorce. My question is what is divorce? What does it mean? How was it understood at the time of Christ on earth? | ||||||
3151 | Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? | Acts 2:38 | kalos | 316 | ||
What follows may not entirely answer all that you asked in your question, but it does address some of the issues raised. Matthew 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." In this verse JESUS HIMSELF commands the disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." . . . It is misleading to say "Father-Son-Holy Spirit is not metioned after Christ's resurrection. Perhaps not that exact phrase, but see such passages as 2 Cor 13:14 where the Lord Jesus Christ, God, and the Holy Spirit are most definitely MENTIONED. . . . Moreover, in the New Testament after the book of Acts rarely is Christ referred to as merely Jesus. The majority of times that His name is mentioned, He is called Christ, Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus. . . . It should be noted that the name of Jesus is not a magic word to get whatever we want. 'To ask in Jesus' "name" does not mean to tack such an expression on the end of a prayer as a mere formula. It means: 1) the believer's prayer should be for His purposes and kingdom and not selfish reasons.' (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1613) | ||||||
3152 | What is Ash Wednesday? | Bible general Archive 1 | kalos | 315 | ||
The term Ash Wednesday dates from the 14th century. It is the first day of Lent. Now what is Lent? " . . . Date: 13th century . . . [Definition]: the 40 weekdays from Ash Wednesday to Easter observed by the Roman Catholic, Eastern, and some Protestant churches as a period of penitence and fasting." (Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary) |
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3153 | What does this mean? | Mark 6:5 | kalos | 313 | ||
"Mark 6:5 '...He could do no mighty work there...' Compare Matt 13:58. This is not to suggest that His power was somehow diminished by their unbelief. It may suggest that because of their unbelief people were not coming to Him for healing or miracles the way they did in Capernaum and Jerusalem. Or, more importantly, it may signify that Christ limited His ministry both as an act of mercy, so that the exposure to greater light would not result in a worse hardening that would only subject them to greater condemnation, and a judgment on their unbelief. He had the power to do more miracles, but not the will, because they rejected Him. Miracles belonged among those who were ready to believe." (MacArthur Study Bible, p. 1470) | ||||||
3154 | Predetermined or Free Will | Luke 8:13 | kalos | 312 | ||
"Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. . . . No sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him." . . . Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will." . . . (www.gty.org(slash)IssuesandAnswers(slash)archive(slash) See this website for more information on the Bible doctrine of election. |
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3155 | Just as if I had never sinned? | 1 Cor 6:11 | kalos | 287 | ||
'The term [justified]describes what happens when someone believes in Christ as his Savior: From the negative viewpoint, God declares the person to be not guilty; from the positive viewpoint, He declares him to be righteous. He cancels the guilt of the person's sin and credits righteousness to him.' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1639) All this being true, it would be accurate to regard justification as a state in which my standing in the eyes of God is "just as if I had never sinned." Of course, justification by faith alone (Rom 3:28) does not give the justified one license to sin (Romans 6). The apostle Paul was falsely accused of teaching grace as a license to sin, as are many today who understand that SALVATION IS BY GRACE ALONE THROUGH FAITH ALONE IN CHRIST ALONE. "Salvation is conditioned solely on faith in Jesus Christ. Nearly 200 times faith, or belief, is stated as the single condition [for salvation] in the New Testament." (Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press) Guilty feelings or memories have nothing to do with it; the fact remains "we are justified by faith apart from works of the Law" (Rom 3:28 NIV). | ||||||
3156 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | kalos | 271 | ||
'According to Jesus [in Matt 28:19], baptism is to be administered "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" . . . Evangelicals accept this verse as Jesus' words and agree that the Trinitarian formula was spoken by the Son of God himself.' (NRSV Harper Study Bible, note at Matt 28:19) Acts 2:38 is 'not a contradiction to the fuller formula given in Matt 28:19. In Acts the abbreviated form emphasizes the distinctive quality of this baptism, for Jesus is now included in a way that He was not in John's baptism . . . ' (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 1576) | ||||||
3157 | Is Hades also the lake of fire? | Bible general Archive 1 | kalos | 266 | ||
I couldn't help but notice that you're not entirely satisfied with all the replies you've received to your question regarding Hades. If you would like to do some research on this or any other Bible topic, may I suggest some invaluable websites to aid you in your search? They are: www.goshen.net; www.gospelcom.net; www.crosssearch.com; www.crosswalk.com | ||||||
3158 | So then, what is Hades? | Bible general Archive 1 | kalos | 235 | ||
In the New Testament "hell" is the translation of two words, Hades and Gehenna . The word Hades , like Sheol sometimes means merely "the grave," (Acts 2:31; 1 Corinthians 15:55; Revelation 20:13) or in general "the unseen world." It is in this sense that the creeds say of our Lord, "He went down into hell," meaning the state of the dead in general, without any restriction of happiness or misery. Elsewhere in the New Testament Hades is used of a place of torment, (Matthew 11:23; Luke 16:23; 2 Peter 2:4) etc.; consequently it has been the prevalent, almost the universal, notion that Hades is an intermediate state between death and resurrection, divided into two parts one the abode of the blest and the other of the lost. It is used eleven times in the New Testament, and only once translated "grave." (1 Corinthians 15:55) (Smith's Bible Dictionary) | ||||||
3159 | Can a divorced person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:15 | kalos | 231 | ||
JMR, thanks for your answer. I agree that a Christian should not divorce. But the question is: if a person was divorced on scriptural grounds (desertion or sexual immorality on the part of their former spouse), does that divorce not carry with it the right to remarry? Or is divorce nothing more than legalized separation? How is a person still bound by the marriage covenant if he is no longer married? | ||||||
3160 | Covenant of salt, what does it mean? | Num 18:19 | kalos | 203 | ||
" . . . The phrase 'covenant of salt' . . . remains obscure . . . A 'covenant of salt' is perhaps an allusion to the salt used in the sacrificial meal that commonly accompanied the making of a covenant (see Gen 31:54; Ex 24:5-11; Ps 50:5). (Zondervan NASB Study Bible, p. 204) | ||||||
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