Results 241 - 260 of 6770
|
||||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
241 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 223533 | ||
Greetings Lightedsteps! I hope you don't mind if I jump in on this discussion. I understand the verses you are appealing to, and what you are trying to say about the reality of Christ's humanity. However, you are making a fundamental mistake in assuming that real temptation necessitates a fallen, depraved, human nature. Consider the situation of Adam and Eve. Were they created with a fallen, depraved, human nature? Of course, they were not! Yet, they were tempted by Satan. The fact that temptation was a reality for Christ does not mean that he had a fallen, depraved, human nature. This fallen, depraved, human nature is described in Scripture. Psa 51:5 Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me. Rom 3:10 As it is written: "There is no one righteous, not even one; Rom 3:23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, None of these passages describe the human nature that Christ possessed. He was without sin in any form - Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin. So, Jesus was tempted, but He had no sin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
242 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | Morant61 | 223401 | ||
Greetings Makarios! Excellent post my friend! Like you, I always saw the Baptism as a one time event at conversion, while fillings could be repeated. It is good to hear from you! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
243 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | Morant61 | 223382 | ||
Greetings Lightedsteps! :-) Good question! My defense would be that I wasn't formulating a doctrine, but simply listing what happened. While we don't want to base doctrine upon narrative, the narratives are still Scripture. So, if Scripture specifically says that an individual was filled more than once, then they certainly were filled more than once. What does that mean? I'm not sure! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
244 | are there multiple infillings? | Acts | Morant61 | 223366 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! In Acts, we find that the same people are filled with the Spirit more than one on several occasions. In Acts 2:4, and in Acts 4:31, many of the same people were filled with the Spirit twice, Peter and John being the obvious ones. The disciples are also mentioned as being filled with the Spirit again in Acts 13:52. In Acts 9:17 and Acts 13:9, Paul is filled with the Spirit twice. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
245 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223355 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! How does one interpret? That is a complex subject. :-) However, the best rule of thumb is to take Scripture in the way in which it was intended. A story is not a command. A command is not a poem. A poem is not instruction, ect.... That is what I meant about Acts being narrative. Someone in a narrative doing something, even if it occurs over and over again, is not a command for us to do the same thing. What they did may or may not be correct, unless Scripture tells us specifically. Interpretation itself is really not that difficult, or at least not as difficult as many people make it out to be. :-) The reason we end up with so many different interpretations is because so many ignore the basic rules of grammar. If you are interested in a more detailed examination of this topic, I would recommend the book, 'How to Read the Bible for All it is Worth' by Gordon Fee. It is an excellent handling of the topic, but very readable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
246 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223352 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! Navigation can be difficult at times. :-) I am glad my post was helpful. From experience, I can tell you how your friend will most likely respond. He will probably say that tongues are implied, even though they are not mentioned. The strongest point though is not whether or not tongues are mentioned, but the fact that no 'teaching' portion of Scripture states that everyone who is filled with Spirit will speak in tongues. Even if every instance of a narrative mentioned tongues, one could not build a doctrine based upon a narrative alone. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
247 | Is there always the evidence of tongues? | Acts | Morant61 | 223329 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! Acts 2:4 mentions the Holy Spirit and tongues occurring at the same time. Acts 4:3 mentions the entire group being filled with the Holy Spirit, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 4:31, Paul is filled with the Holy Spirit, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 8:14-17, the Holy Spirit is given through the laying on of Peter and John's hands, but there is no mention of tongues. In Acts 10:44-46, the Holy Spirit and tongues are both mentioned. In Acts 19:6, tongues and the Holy Spirit are both mentioned. So, the evidence is fairly evenly split in Acts. However, remember that Acts is a narrative account. One should never base doctrine on a narrative account. There is not a single verse in Scripture that 'teaches' that everyone who receives the Holy Spirit will speak in tongues. Rather, the opposite is true. In a series of questions, requiring a 'no' response, 1 Cor. 12:30 indicates that not everyone will speak in tongues. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
248 | The Spirit and the Seventy | John 16:7 | Morant61 | 223327 | ||
Greetings Ariel Levin! Please, just call me 'Tim'! :-) I feel old enough as it is! ;-) I don't always agree with Barnes, but he usually makes some good observations. I assume that you are talking about the 70 in Numbers 11. If so, I don't so any conflict with Barnes' statements. The 70 received a portion of the Spirit from Moses to accomplish a specific task. Nothing is said in Scripture about whether or not the Spirit stayed on them at all times or only when they were performing that specific task. Neither is anything said about how long the Spirit stayed upon them. Either way, the coming of the Holy Spirit in the New Testament is vastly different in both extent and nature. Christ promised us that the Holy Spirit would indwell all believers, forever. Great question my friend! Let us know if you find any more information about it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
249 | The Spirit and the Seventy | John 16:7 | Morant61 | 223324 | ||
Greetings Ariel Levin! 'Why' questions are tough, unless Scripture gives us a direct answer. I'm not sure which verse you referencing concerning Moses and the 70 elders, but usually in the Old Testament, the Holy Spirit only came upon people for a time. After Christ, the Holy Spirit now indwells all of His people, all of the time. Here is how Albert Barnes explains it: ************** Joh 16:7 It is expedient for you ... - The reason why it was expedient for them that he should go away, he states to be, that in this way only would the Comforter be granted to them. Still, it may be asked why the presence of the Holy Spirit was more valuable to them than that of the Saviour himself? To this it may be answered: 1. That by his departure, his death, and ascension - by having these great facts before their eyes they would be led by the Holy Spirit to see more fully the design of his coming than they would by his presence. While he was with them, notwithstanding the plainest teaching, their minds were filled with prejudice and error. They still adhered to the expectation of a temporal kingdom, and were unwilling to believe that he was to die. When he should have actually left them they could no longer doubt on this subject, and would be prepared to understand why he came. And this was done. See the Acts of the Apostles everywhere. It is often needful that God should visit us with severe affliction before our pride will be humbled and we are willing to understand the plainest truths. 2. While on the earth the Lord Jesus could be bodily present but in one place at one time. Yet, in order to secure the great design of saving men, it was needful that there should be some agent who could be in all places, who could attend all ministers, and who could, at the same time, apply the work of Christ to people in all parts of the earth. 3. It was an evident arrangement in the great plan of redemption that each of the persons of the Trinity should perform a part. As it was not the work of the Spirit to make an atonement, so it was not the work of the Saviour to apply it. And until the Lord Jesus had performed this great work, the way was not open for the Holy Spirit to descend to perform his part of the great plan; yet, when the Saviour had completed his portion of the work and had left the earth, the Spirit would carry forward the same plan and apply it to men. 4. It was to be expected that far more signal success would attend the preaching of the gospel when the atonement was actually made than before. It was the office of the Spirit to carry forward the work only when the Saviour had died and ascended; and this was actually the case. See Acts 2. Hence, it was expedient that the Lord Jesus should go away, that the Spirit might descend and apply the work to sinners. The departure of the Lord Jesus was to the apostles a source of deep affliction, but had they seen the whole case they would not have been thus afflicted. So God often takes away from us one blessing that he may bestow a greater. All affliction, if received in a proper manner, is of this description; and could the afflicted people of God always see the whole case as God sees it, they would think and feel, as he does, that it was best for them to be thus afflicted. It is expedient - It is better for you. ******* I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
250 | Acts9:1-30 vs Galations 1:15-19 | Acts 9:23 | Morant61 | 223316 | ||
Greetings Wncryder! The question from the non-believer begins with a false assumption. The question states that the writer of Acts claims that 'within a few days after Paul's conversion he went to Jerusalem'. Yet, nowhere does Acts make that claim. :-) Acts 9:23 mentions 'many days', but how many days is never specified. The only definitive time reference is found in Galatians, where Paul says he did not go to Jerusalem until after three years. In fact, Galatians seems to indicate that Paul went to Damascus, then to Arabia, back to Damascus, and then to Jerusalem. Acts 9 only records one of the trips to Damascus and the trip to Jerusalem. Both accounts are accurate, neither lied. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
251 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | Morant61 | 223279 | ||
Greetings Biblenovice! You wrote: "Notice that there was no mention of "prayers" in either James 4:3, nor in my original question, but only of "asking."" But, in your original post, you wrote: "Does anyone have any idea why my prayers for adequate heat in that car were not answered, or can anyone describe how I (or any member of my family) could possibly consume adequate heat and a working defroster upon our collective lusts?" So, you did mention prayer. :-) Instead of Luke 6:38, I believe that you are referring to Phil. 4:19, but even that verse makes no mention of 'asking' or of 'prayer'. Is there really a difference between 'asking' and 'praying'? The word for 'ask' is used in various contexts relating to prayer. In Matthew 6, verses 7 and 9 refer to 'prayer', while verse 8 refers to 'asking'. Clearly, 'asking' is considered prayer. Matt. 21:22 says that we will receive whatever we ask for in prayer. See also Mark 11:24. Col. 1:9 mentions both words together. Prayer is asking God for something! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
252 | Did the Romans kill Jesus or did the Jew | NT general | Morant61 | 223169 | ||
Greetings Bob! You are correct that the Jewish leaders plotted to have Jesus killed. The Roman authorities carried out His execution. But, we are all responsible for His death, because He died for our sins - 1 John 2:2. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
253 | Heaven or hell predetermined? | Eph 1:11 | Morant61 | 223156 | ||
Greetings All! This topic has been much discussed in the past and it usually led to bad things. :-( It might be better to simply drop the topic and search the archives. There are several differing views of what 'election' and 'predestination'. Both sides believe that 'their' view is the correct one. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
254 | Translate Rev 5:10 accurately please | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222760 | ||
Greetings RRHill! Excellent question! The Textus Receptus, upon which the KJV is based, reads 'us', but there is very little textual support for the reading. Other translations use 'them', which has much greater textual support. So, the NIV would be more accurate in it's reading and translation in this case. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
255 | how many years moses deid when Jesus cam | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222653 | ||
Greetings David! The date of Moses' birth is much in dispute. He was probably born around 1500 BC, so he probably died in the early 1300's BC. Jesus was most likely born around 6 BC. So, He was born between 1200 and 1300 years after Moses died. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
256 | Imprecatory Prayers in New Testament | NT general | Morant61 | 222288 | ||
Greetings Doc! I had thought about the disciples comment to Jesus, but the question specifically asked for imprecatory prayers. Their comment was a question, not a prayer. There are other examples of curses, like Paul blinding a man. But, I can't think of any prayers off of the top of my head. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
257 | Imprecatory Prayers in New Testament | NT general | Morant61 | 222284 | ||
Greetings Lcdking! For those who may not know, an imprecatory prayer is a prayer in which vengeance, death, or some curse is called for upon one's enemies. They are found in the Old Testament. But, I can't think of any clear examples in the New Testament. Some have argued that Jesus prayer concerning Judas may have been one, and there are a few cases of church discipline that some think may be imprecatory in nature. However, I can't think of any clear cut instances. Here is link to a good article about this subject: http://www.gotquestions.org/imprecatory-prayer.html Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
258 | In Him | Col 1:16 | Morant61 | 222276 | ||
Greetings Kiki! Excellent question! In Colossians 1:16, Paul stresses the supremacy of Christ over all things. The word translated 'in' is the Greek preposition 'en'. This preposition indicates the means by which all things were created. In this case, all things were created 'by Him' and 'for Him'. So, like the NASB, 'by Him' would be a better translation that 'in Him'. I hope this answers your question! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
259 | what number does threescore meam | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222187 | ||
Greetings! A 'score' is 20. So, threescore would be 3 times 20, or 60. While, fourscore would be 4 times 20, or 80. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
260 | what threescore and fourscore means | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 222185 | ||
Greetings! A 'score' is 20. So, threescore would be 3 times 20, or 60. While, fourscore would be 4 times 20, or 80. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 ] Next > Last [339] >> |