Results 201 - 220 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
201 | Moses appeared from where? | Matt 17:3 | Morant61 | 225382 | ||
Greetings Drbloor and Merry Christmas! Certainly no thinks that you are ignorant my friend! :-) You made some excellent points and observations! There is just some question whether or not your observation necessarily makes the transfiguration 'just a vision' in the sense that it wasn't also a physical reality as well. Have a great Christmas! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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202 | Moses appeared from where? | Matt 17:3 | Morant61 | 225365 | ||
Greetings drbloor! Excellent observation about the usage of 'horama'. However, does the word necessarily indicate that they were not actually there? The word itself refers to a spectacle seen. But, I can't find any evidence that the word itself indicates a necessary lack of physical reality. I have sources that I can check when I get to my office for more information. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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203 | Where did the other people come from? | OT general | Morant61 | 225300 | ||
Greetings Lionheart! Thanks for the kind words my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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204 | Matthew 24:19:what does this mean | Matt 24:19 | Morant61 | 225299 | ||
Greetings Joseph01! Matthew 24 is a lengthy passage describing events from the time of Christ all the way to the end of the world. Matt. 24:19 seems to be a description of the events that would take place at the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 a.d. The phrase simply indicates that it would be very difficult for mothers and mother's to be to escape the city during it's destruction. Here is what Clarke says about this verse: "And wo unto them (alas! for them) that are with child, etc. - For such persons are not in a condition to make their escape; neither can they bear the miseries of the siege. Josephus says the houses were full of women and children that perished by the famine; and that the mothers snatched the food even out of their own children’s mouths. See War, b. v. c. 10. But he relates a more horrid story than this, of one Mary, the daughter of Eliezar, illustrious for her family and riches, who, being stripped and plundered of all her goods and provisions by the soldiers, in hunger, rage, and despair, killed and boiled her own sucking child, and had eaten one half of him before it was discovered. This shocking story is told, War, b. vi. c. 3, with several circumstances of aggravation." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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205 | Where did the other people come from? | OT general | Morant61 | 225283 | ||
Greetings Warmspirit! The Bible does not tell us specifically where these people came from, but over time, everyone was descended from Adam and Eve. How much time passed before Cain killed Able? We do not know. But, we do know that a person's expected lifespan at that time was nearly 1,000 years. So, these other people were most likely descendants of his. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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206 | John 1:1 and John 1:14; Is Jesus God? | 2 Cor 13:11 | Morant61 | 225268 | ||
Part 2... I would summarize the Scriptural passages in the following ways. 1) What others said about Jesus! 2) What Jesus Himself said! 3) What others understood Jesus to be saying about Himself! Let's look at just a few examples of each. 1) This is by far the clearest category for a very simple reason. It was only after the resurrection of Christ that the disciples really began to understand who Jesus was - God in the flesh. The Jews had a concept of the Messiah (a political leader) which differed from the reality. So, what do others say about Jesus in the Bible? a) John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." This Word is defined in v. 14 as the One who became flesh, in v. 15 as the one of whom John the Baptist testified (Jesus), in v. 3 as the Creator of all things, and in v. 18 as God. Clearly, this passage does not refer to 'sons of God', but to Jesus. To interpret it any other way is to strip written language of all meaning. b) Col. 2:9 - "For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form," c) Phil. 2:5-11. d) Titus 2:13 - " while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ," These are just a few verses where Jesus is called God. 2) The claims of Christ Himself are a little more vague for one simple reason. People were not ready for this revelation. But, His claims are clear enough. Consider the following examples: a) All of the "I am" passages, where He equates Himself with the "I am" of Exodus. b) Mt. 13:41, where He speaks of His angels and His Kingdom. The angels are referred to elsewhere as the "angels of God" (Lk. 12:8-9; 15:10.) The Kingdom is repeatedly referred to in the Gospels as the "Kingdom of God." c) Christ’s claim to be able to forgive sins in Mark 2:5 equates Him with God. The Jews understood this for in v. 7 they say it is blasphemy because only God can forgive sins. d) In Mt. 25:31-46, Christ speaks of judging the world. A function which properly belongs only to God. e) In Mark 2:27-28, Christ claims to be "the Lord of the Sabbath." The Sabbath was instituted by God. Therefore, only God could abrogate or modify this regulation. f) In John 10:30, Christ claims to be "one with the Father." g) In John 14:7-9, Christ says that to see and know Him is to see and know the Father. h) In John 8:58, Jesus claims to be God and pre-existent. i) Christ accepted the attribution of deity made to Him by Thomas, when Thomas cried "My Lord and my God (John 20:28). j) He claimed to have power over life and death in John 11:25. Probably the most dramatic example is in Mt. 26:63-65, where under oath Jesus affirmed that He was the Son of God. He was then condemned for blasphemy. If the term 'Son of God' only meant a 'son of God', why was He condemned for blasphemy? 3) Finally, there are many examples of the Jews responding to Jesus' teachings in such a way that it is clear that they understood Him to be claiming to be God. The best example is John 5:18 - "For this reason the Jews tried all the harder to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." So, the Bible is full of statements that Jesus is God (and this is only the NT). He said it under oath and alluded to it many times. The disciples, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit directly state it many times. And, even the Jews understood what Jesus was claiming and accused Him of blasphemy and eventually killed Him. We may choose to reject what Scripture affirms about Jesus, but we cannot deny what Scripture says. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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207 | John 1:1 and John 1:14; Is Jesus God? | 2 Cor 13:11 | Morant61 | 225267 | ||
Greetings! The essence of the doctrine of the Trinity is fairly simple. 1) There is only one God! 2) Scripture calls three distinct Persons God: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Thus, the doctrine of the Trinity affirms that there is only one God, who eternally exists as three distinct persons. Cults, like the Jehovah's Witnesses miss both points. They claim, based upon an incorrect translation of John 1:1, that Jesus is a god, but not the Almighty God. The problem is that Scripture clearly states that there is no other god but Jehovah. Is. 43:10 states, "You are my witnesses, declares the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me." The sad irony of this verse is that Jehovah's (the LORD) witnesses are supposed to proclaim that there are no other gods, yet they continually claim that there other gods beside Jehovah. There response to this criticism is usually that other things are called 'gods' in Scripture so it is okay to say that Jesus is 'a god'. Yes, people would cut down a tree and make an idol out of part of it, and call it their god. But, it was not REALLY a god. There is only one God. However, John 1:1 does not fit this example because it is not some pagan idol worshiper who is calling Jesus God, it is God's Word itself. continued in part 2.... |
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208 | He is Lord of all | Acts 10:36 | Morant61 | 225251 | ||
Greetings Azure! Yes! All of the manuscript evidence supports that the reading was original to the text. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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209 | He is Lord of all | Acts 10:36 | Morant61 | 225249 | ||
Greetings Azure! The parenthesis simply mean that 'He is Lord of all' is a parenthetical remark. In other words, a clause that is meant to explain the rest of the sentence. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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210 | Lying justified? | Josh 2:5 | Morant61 | 225089 | ||
Greetings MJH! Or, one must simply trust God! :-) Our God is bigger than the residents of Jericho or the members of the Nazi party. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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211 | Why the children? | Num 33:55 | Morant61 | 224862 | ||
Greetings Beja! Interesting discussion! In my tradition, the biblical grounds for an age of accountability is found in the universal atonement of Rom. 5. Thus, those who cannot chose are covered by God's grace. Those who can chose, at some point in their lives (earlier, rather than later) will chose to sin and ratify their sin nature, and thus bring upon themselves condemnation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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212 | The error addressed in 2 Peter | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 224861 | ||
Greetings Doc! Vincent says of 2 Peter 1:5: "The A. V. exhorts to add one virtue to another; but the Greek, to develop one virtue in the exercise of another: “an increase by growth, not by external junction; each new grace springing out of, attempting, and perfecting the other.” Render, therefore, as Rev. In your faith supply virtue, and in your virtue knowledge, etc." Thus, he would recommend diagramming the verses as stair steps with faith leading up to love. This was a great question to think about! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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213 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 224653 | ||
Greetings John! Pastor Beja is correct! I should have added the following phrase to my post: "When the first noun has the article, while the second does not." But, as you pointed out, the meaning of the post is not changed as each example follows this rule. Thanks! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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214 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 224652 | ||
Greetings Beja! Good catch my friend! I should have added: "And the first noun has the article, while second does not." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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215 | Paradise vs. Heaven | John 20:17 | Morant61 | 224651 | ||
Greetings 00123! There is much confusion over the various states of the dead. Here is an old post of mine that might help clarify some of your questions. ********** Greetings Meredith! Long time, no see my friend! :-) Allow me to explain my point, but first let me emphasis that I do believe in an eternal punishment in Hell for the wicked. The only problem is that the KJV (along with several other translations) translates four different words as 'hell'. This leads to much confusion over who is in hell, when, why, ect... Here are the four different words: In Hebrew (Sheol) and in Greek (Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna). Allow me to briefly describe each term. 1) Sheol: Hebrew only uses one word to describe the state of the dead. This word can simply refer to death or the grave in general or it can refer to the spiritual status of all the dead. Prov. 9:18 says of Sheol - "But little do they know that the dead are there, that her guests are in the depths of the grave." Thus, Sheol is a place where all the dead go. Ps. 9:17 says that Sheol is a place where the wicked go - "The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God." However, even godly Jacob expected to go to Sheol according to Gen. 44:29 - " If you take this one from me too and harm comes to him, you will bring my gray head down to the grave in misery.?" And, Ps. 89:48 affirms that all men will go to Sheol - "What man can live and not see death, or save himself from the power of the grave? Selah" Thus, this Old Testament word is best translated as 'Death' or the 'Grave' and simply refers to the state of all men at death. It does not refer to what we think of as 'Hell' in the sense of an eternal place of conscience punisment. 2) Hades: This is the New Testament equivalent of Sheol. It has much the same meaning as did Sheol with one exception. That exception being that the New Testament fills the meaning out with the passage to which you refered. Thus, we discover in Luke 16:20-31 that there are compartments in Sheol/Hades. There is a place of punishment where the wicked go to await final judgement and there is a paradise side, Abraham's bosom, where the righteous go to await salvation. This paradise side is now empty. After the death of Christ, complete atonement was made for sin and all those who died 'in Christ' went to be with Him in Heaven. Notice that Jesus did not tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in Heaven today, becase Heaven was not available until after the resurrection of Christ. The wicked dead still go to the punishment side of Sheol/Hades and will remain there until the Great White Throne of Judgement. 3) Tartarus: This word is only found once in the Bible. 2 Peter 2:4 desribes it as a place where certain Angels were placed until judgement. Some believe that it may be a lower part of Sheol/Hades. 4) Gehenna: This word describes what we commonly think of as Hell. It is used 12 times in the New Testament and describes a place of punishment, fire, and condemnation. I believe that Gehenna is also refered to in Rev. 20:11-15, where it is called a 'lake of fire'. However, note that this passage teaches that those in Sheol/Hades will be judged and then place into the 'lake of fire'. Thus, no one is actually in Hell right now! This is part of the reason why it is unBiblical to say that Jesus descended into Hell after His death. He went into Sheol/Hades (or the Grave), where Scripture foretold that God the Father would not leave Him. He went to paradise (possibly the prison of 1 Peter 3:9), but there is not any Scripture which says that He went to Hell. Nor, did He need to go to Hell to suffer and complete our salvation as many in the WOF camp teach. Our salvation was fully accomplished upon the cross and on the cross alone. I hope this answers your question and clarifies my point! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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216 | good things come to those who wait | Lam 3:25 | Morant61 | 224543 | ||
Greetings! The quote is not actually Scripture as popularly quoted. But, there is a similar saying in Lamentations 3:25. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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217 | does this refer to exodus or creation? | Ps 18:1 | Morant61 | 224517 | ||
Greetings Vnct Blzn! According to the intro to the Psalm, the occasion was God's deliverance of David from his enemies, in particular, Saul. So, it would appear that Ps. 18:7-15 does not refer to either the exodus or creation, but is simply a poetic description of God's deliverance of David. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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218 | The true Gospel Jesus proclaimed | Matt 4:23 | Morant61 | 224515 | ||
Greetings 00123! I pastor a holiness church, so we do emphasize the importance of living a holy life. However, we must always remember that we can live a holy life because we are saved. We do not live a holy life to get saved. That is an important distinction. Eph. 2:8-10 makes the order perfectly clear. We are saved unto good works, not by good works. :-) Holiness is more an issue of living out the reality of our salvation, not trying to earn it. If we are saved, we should live holy lives. If we walk in the Spirit, we will not fulfill the lusts of the flesh. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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219 | Jewish believers or not | 1 Pet 1:1 | Morant61 | 224503 | ||
Greetings Beja! It is also clear in Romans 9 that 'my people' will include Gentiles. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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220 | Something about Cruelty in the Bible | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 224406 | ||
Greetings Johns! The answer is found in Romans 9:20-24: Rom 9:20-24 But who are you, O man, to talk back to God? "Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, 'Why did you make me like this?' " (21) Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use? (22) What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath--prepared for destruction? (23) What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory-- (24) even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles? What kind of answer can we give? The penalty for sin is death and God has every right to demand it. Fortunately for us, He also loves us and has offered us the gift of eternal life: Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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