Results 241 - 260 of 517
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Results from: Notes Author: Beja Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
241 | Unpardoned sin in New Testament? | Mark | Beja | 229894 | ||
To no one poster but to the thread, How terribly this thread condemns me! For I confess to you all today that many times I rejected Christ, and many times I refused to believe, and many times I ignored the promting of the Holy Spirit prior to humbling myself before God and pleading the blood of Christ. Job 38:2 might help our study in this subject a great deal. In Christ, Beja |
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242 | Forgiving Blaspemies! | Mark | Beja | 229910 | ||
JohnRyals, Since you are clearly against taking away from a text, I'm supposing it is accidental that you left out when Jesus said "but..." and stated a clear exception. Mar 3:28 "Truly I say to you, all sins shall be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they utter; Mar 3:29 but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin"-- In Christ, Beja |
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243 | Forgiving Blaspemies! | Mark | Beja | 229912 | ||
JohnRyals, There is no need for you to excuse yourself. You have not offended me in the least. Its hard to be overly offended about an issue of grammer. And that is what I am objecting to. I have no interest in any view point on such an argued thing as the unforgivable sin. However, you can't rightly drop off Jesus' own qualification to his statement and then suggest it to somebody else that he is adding to the word of God by simply saying what the text actually says. That's just not how you read whether it be a fiction novel or scripture. But as I said, I'm not sitting here angry over a grammatical point so there is no reason to worry on that account. Stay and discuss with us. In Christ, Beja |
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244 | Mark 10:24 ending change, why? | Mark 10:24 | Beja | 239282 | ||
Justme, Unfortunately I am not well trained in text criticism. However, from what I can tell the earliest appearance of that phrase is from the fifth century. However, I don't want to skew the data, because from what I can tell the earliest copies of Mark that I'm seeing in this list are from the 4th century. So the fourth century texts omit the phrase then it shows up in the fifth century. Now text criticism is far more complex than this. You have to consider what are called "text families" as well as internal considerations before making any well informed decision. Simply based on what Metzger stated in his book he seems to think that with the earlier texts attesting to the phrase not being there, they then felt comfortable suggesting that it is far easier to understand why the phrase would be added for the sake of clarity by later scribes, while it makes no sense for the phrase to be omitted by a scribe. They followed the principle of which reading best explains the rise of the other readings. If you want to do research into the text traditions. It looks like the big hitter, Sinaiticus, along with Vaticanus and some other less ancient texts as well all do NOT have the phrase. The earliest that contain the phrase are Alexandrinus, Bezae Cantabrigiensis, Ephraemi Rescriptus and then some less ancient texts. That is about as far as my expertise goes, I can not really tell you how much weight to give to certain texts. I know the two which reject the addition are significant texts but I can't help much further. Best of luck on it. In Christ, Beja |
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245 | "why have you forsaken me?" | Mark 15:34 | Beja | 226489 | ||
EdB, I agree with you entirely on this. I also like to point out that this psalm ends with an expectation of God's triumph and glory. I think not only was Christ calling out in anguish, but at the same time He indeed, as you said, had the entire psalm in mind and that means that it was also a declaration of faith that even in this it would end to the glory of God. In Christ, Beja |
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246 | later versions contain this paragraph? | Mark 16:20 | Beja | 240553 | ||
Tim, Doc has indeed pointed you to one of the key places to begin a study of your question. However, just to be blunt, if you are not trained to understand those sources or have somebody able to help you work through them they won't practically pay off. You are going to basically be told that aleph and beta two fourth century manuscripts omit this section of Mark. Many more manuscripts contain it, the problem is that Aleph and Beta are perhaps the most reliable and of the most early of the sources we have available. However, any modern commentary on Mark that is worth its salt must deal with the question you are asking and likely deal with it in great detail. Therefore I would suggest you seek your answer in commentaries. They are far from inerrant but you will get to see the discussion. R.T. France's commentary on Mark is usually agreed to be at least among the finest of the commentaries on Mark recently published. So I would point you there to seek an answer. It will take a little work on your part but any answer given on this forum will be reductionistic out of necessity. Good luck to you. In Christ, Beja |
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247 | Where did Jesus do away with the Sabbath | Luke 6:5 | Beja | 232638 | ||
elder4yhwh, That door swings both ways. When Paul says that nobody is to judge us with regards to a Sabbath, we can not suggest that only means for people not to judge us for observing one. We must also apply it the other way around. This means that nobody is to judge us if we do NOT observe a sabbath. And in the context this is clearly grounded upon the finished work of Jesus Christ. So the passage very much says that nobody is to judge a person for not obeserving the sabbath because of what Christ has done. Now granted, this does not explicitly spell out "Jesus has done away with the Sabbath." But how else are we to understand it? We no longer have the moral obligation to observe it due to the work of Christ. Call that what you will. I find it very relevant to your original question. In Christ, Beja |
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248 | Where did Jesus do away with the Sabbath | Luke 6:5 | Beja | 232705 | ||
elder4yhwh, In your view do we sin when we don't observe the sabbath? In Christ, Beja |
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249 | Actions to preach the kingdom of God | Luke 9:2 | Beja | 224444 | ||
00123, Its a pretty interesting question you are asking. One that I admitedly haven't thought of much in the past. I'll give you some of my own thoughts on this matter and you can judge their worth for yourself. First, what message exactly was this kingdom message they went and preached? We must noticed that we aren't given any examples of it. I am left with the assumption that their message was the same message as Christ when He Himself preached the kingdom. So what did Christ do? That we have many examples of yet we then notice that Christ spoke in parables. Shall we assume that the preaching of the disciples were also them going out in parables? I couldn't say. Now, let me direct the question a bit further. If the case is that we are asking this question from just some trivial interest then we are forced to stop there. We are given no further evidence of how their preaching differed from post-ressurection preaching. But, if we are asking such a question because we feel it is of the utmost importance because we ourselves must know what we are to preach, then I suggest we reshape the question. Let us state it clearly in that case and ask what shall we preach? Now there we have very much guidance in the scriptures. We see very clearly what those disciples of Christ preached once the Holy Spirit came and they were filled with power on high. They preached Jesus Christ crucified for sins. They preached justification through faith. They preached the gospel. So what are we to be preaching? The gospel. And truely, that may be what preaching the Kingdom of God was from the beggining. Mar 1:14,15 Now after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel." In this verse we see Christ preaching the coming of the kingdom to be a motivation to believing the gospel and repenting. And again scripture says Mat 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach and say, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." So when Christ preached the kingdom of God, central to that was calling people to repent and believe the gospel. This is exactly what we see the aposltes take up after pentecost. Paul says his constant teaching was Act 20:21 solemnly testifying to both Jews and Greeks of repentance toward God and faith in our Lord Jesus Christ. So there is no question what you and I are to be preaching. We are to call people to repentence and preach the gospel as ambassadors of Christ urging them to be reconciled to God. (2 Cor 5:20) In Christ, Beja |
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250 | WHAT IS THE (PORTION) IN LUKE 12:46 | Luke 12:46 | Beja | 227015 | ||
JJE, To say that he would assign them their portion means that they will receive the same fate, the same lot, the same outcome as the unbelievers. It only refers to anything specifically in as much as that happens to be the actual portion of unbelievers. The figure of speech simply means to say, "Whatever it is they receive, so will your fate be." As a side note, I do believe this is in harmony with the security of the saint's eternal salvation. But that would become a much longer post. In Christ, Beja |
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251 | WHAT IS THE (PORTION) IN LUKE 12:46 | Luke 12:46 | Beja | 227060 | ||
JJE, Unbelievers will be in hell until that day comes that all are brought before the throne of God to be judged. At this point hell and unbelievers are thrown into the lake of fire (Rev 20.) In Christ, Beja |
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252 | WHAT IS THE (PORTION) IN LUKE 12:46 | Luke 12:46 | Beja | 227070 | ||
JJE, I hold to a position that has been named amillenialism. So my answer might not be what you'd expect. After Christ's return, which is the time of the rapture, God will judge all flesh, and make all things new. Simple as that. In Christ, Beja |
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253 | John 13 - Five ways to reproduce | John | Beja | 233361 | ||
Sixela, Well, whenever a baby is born I tend to assume it was done the old fashioned way. And so far I've been right more often than not. In Christ, Beja |
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254 | Do we accept? | John 1:1 | Beja | 229989 | ||
Wings, This is what scripture tells us and we must not pit the new and old testaments against each other. Col 1:13 For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son, Col 1:14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins. Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. Col 1:16 For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him. And Jesus tells us Joh 8:24 "Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins." In Christ, Beja |
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255 | Pharisee expectations on baptism | John 1:25 | Beja | 220396 | ||
Dear Doc, Just shortly after posting my question I discovered just this very thing on the internet! A fine response by him for sure. I thank you very much that you continually not simply answer questions, but that you put us in touch with these great minds from past generations. I think you are very well aware that this is exactly what we hurt for today, having mistakenly thought too much of modern wisdom and cast off such benefits that have been given us from past generations. In Christ, Beja |
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256 | Truth or Consequences | John 3:16 | Beja | 219815 | ||
Colton, you have stated that when you read scripture, your practice is to pray and see if it agrees with the Holy Spirit inside you. I would submit this scripture to you for you to pray over. 2 Timothy 3:14-17 You, however, continue in the things you have learned and become convinced of, knowing from whom you have learned them, and that from childhood you have known the sacred writings which are able to give you the wisdom that leads to salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." I would ask you to ask a few questions as you pray over this passage. From where does it say that Timothy has learned the things he is sure of? Isn't it the sacred writings? Does this teach that all scripture is inspired? Or does it teach some of it is mixed with error? Where does this teach that we learn all the things we ought about walking in life as a Christian? In Christ, Beja |
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257 | Are there different levels of heaven? | John 3:16 | Beja | 221522 | ||
Kij, When you see scripture refer to 3 heavens it is referring to the sky, space, and then the third heaven is the abode of the LORD. Whether that glorious third heaven is divided into portions or what else no man knows. Or at least not this one. In Christ, Beja |
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258 | Why do i need to love god? | John 3:16 | Beja | 223412 | ||
Inquisitor, Your statements: "The biggest, most powerful reason we SHOULD love God is so we can go to Heaven." "Now God has sent His Son to fulfill a promise God made after closing down that Garden of Eden. He provided the ONLY Way for any human being to go to Heaven and that is done by obeying God's Commandments or His Son's Last Will and Testament which was executed by the Holy Spirit through His Apostles." Sir, you have just forwarded a false gospel. Perhaps you don't realise the implications of what you are saying. We go to heaven by loving God? We go to heaven by obeying his commandments? According to Romans 3:10-18 there is not a one of us who loves God. The things you describe is a result of salvation and regeneration, not the means of salvation! We are NOT saved through our obedience, we are saved through the obediance of Jesus Christ, and the death of Jesus Christ in our place. (2 Cor 5:21, Isaiah 53). God grants us HIS righteousness not from our doing any thing, but purely and solely through faith. (Romans 3:24-26; Romans 4:1-8; Gal 2:15,16; Romans 5:1,2). Please look up these verses and read them carefully. We must understand our utter bankruptcy before God with regards to our own righteousness, and put our faith (TRUST) in nothing we can do but only in that Christ has fulfilled all expectations for us and paid the price required of all our failures. HE is our rightousness before God, and nothing else. Do not mistake the passages in 1 John that explain what will unavoidably follow salvation, and confuse them for things that merit or cause salvation. In Christ, Beja |
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259 | Why do i need to love god? | John 3:16 | Beja | 223429 | ||
Inquisitor, None of us deny that loving both God and man is important. Those are indeed the greatest two commandments. However, my concern comes from what I fear you might have been saying in your original post. The question is this: How do we receive the grace and salvation which Jesus Christ purchased for us? Your original post sounded like you were saying that we receive grace as a result of loving God/obeying Jesus' command to love. Can you and will you clearly deny such a belief so that we may not worry? In Christ, Beja |
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260 | Why do i need to love god? | John 3:16 | Beja | 223448 | ||
Inquisitor, You failed to answer my question. How do we receive forgiveness and imputation of God's righteousness? This is the entire question, a lot of what you say is correct, IF it is understood with the right answer to the above question. If you are saying that we receive these things by loving God, this is a false gospel. These things were purchased for us by Christ's life, death, ressurection, but we receive these things through faith alone. Can you or can you not affirm this? If you wish to to not confuse us, simply answer that question clearly. In Christ, Beja |
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