Results 21 - 40 of 83
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Tara1 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Do i have to get baptized? | Luke 23:43 | Tara1 | 113569 | ||
Hello again, For the most part I agree with you. Certainly that it's very important and for just an added thought I know that the apostle Paul warned that eventually there would come a time “when people will not tolerate sound doctrine.” (2 Timothy 4:3, The New American Bible) After the apostles died and were no longer able to ‘act as a restraint,’ unscriptural practices began to creep into Christian worship. (2 Thessalonians 2:6) Among them was infant baptism. But infant baptism did not become the rule until the fifth century. Thus a fierce debate took place in history. Christ of course, left us a model to follow closely. 1 Pet. 2:21 In fact, “whoever is not . . . coming after me cannot be my disciple.” (Luke 9:23; 14:27) One should disown oneself, which means one would give up the ownership of oneself and, instead, give oneself to God as his slave, taking up the doing of God’s will. Down to the very end that is what Jesus did, as he expressed it again and again during that last night on the Mount of Olives: “Not as I will, but as you will.” “Not what I want, but what you want.” “Not my will, but yours take place.” Matt. 26:39, 42; Mark 14:36; Luke 22:42 Baptism in Jesus’ case though, was not to symbolize his repentance of sins against the law covenant as he had no sin, and neither is it such in our case. Baptism of Jesus was not for remission of Adamic sins and neither is it such with us. With both Jesus and his followers since Pentecost baptism in water is a symbol of dedication, a confirmatory sign visible to others that testifies to them that the one being baptized has given himself to Almighty God and Jesus to do their will, cost what it may. Today, as in times past, infants many times die before being baptized but they wouldn't be condemned for not being baptized. In fact, I believe that practically everyone that's died, eventhough they were never baptized will be given a chance to choose to serve God or not. “he who has died has been acquitted from his sin.” (Rom. 6:7) And Acts 24:15, says: “There is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous." And these unrighteous doesn't mean willfully wicked, already judged such. John 5:28,29 affirms saying,"Do not marvel at this, because the hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice and come out, those who did good things to a resurrection of life, those who practiced vile things to a resurrection of judgment." They will then be judged on what they learn and choose. Most don't believe this way since they believe that salvation is only a heavenly salvation. But the Bible clearly shows us that the earth was made for man to live on forever. 2 Peter 3:13 tell us that there will be a "new earth" or a new righteous human society. Tara1 |
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22 | language Jesus speak | NT general Archive 1 | Tara1 | 113552 | ||
HI, Good question and one that I have studied in depth in times past. But quess what, there's considerable difference of opinion among scholars. Concerning languages used in Palestine when Jesus Christ was on earth, Professor G. Ernest Wright states: “Various languages were undoubtedly to be heard on the streets of the major cities. Greek and Aramaic were evidently the common tongues, and most of the urban peoples could probably understand both even in such ‘modern’ or ‘western’ cities as Caesarea and Samaria where Greek was the more common. Roman soldiers and officials might be heard conversing in Latin, while orthodox Jews may well have spoken a late variety of Hebrew with one another, a language that we know to have been neither classical Hebrew nor Aramaic, despite its similarities to both.” Commenting further, on the language spoken by Jesus Christ, Professor Wright says: “The language spoken by Jesus has been much debated. We have no certain way of knowing whether he could speak Greek or Latin, but in his teaching ministry he regularly used either Aramaic or the highly Aramaized popular Hebrew. When Paul addressed the mob in the Temple, it is said that he spoke Hebrew (Acts 21:40). Scholars generally have taken this to mean Aramaic, but it is quite possible that a popular Hebrew was then the common tongue among the Jews.”—Biblical Archaeology, 1963, p. 243. It is possible that Jesus and his early disciples, such as the apostle Peter, at least at times spoke Galilean Aramaic, Peter being told on the night Christ was taken into custody: “Certainly you also are one of them, for, in fact, your dialect gives you away.” (Mt 26:73) This may have been said because the apostle was using Galilean Aramaic at the time, though that is not certain, or he may have been speaking a Galilean Hebrew that differed dialectally from that employed in Jerusalem or elsewhere in Judea. Earlier, when Jesus came to Nazareth in Galilee and entered the synagogue there, he read from the prophecy of Isaiah, evidently as written in Hebrew, and then said: “Today this scripture that you just heard is fulfilled.” Nothing is said about Jesus’ translating this passage into Aramaic. So it is likely that persons present on that occasion could readily understand Biblical Hebrew. (Lu 4:16-21) It may also be noted that Acts 6:1, referring to a time shortly after Pentecost 33 C.E., mentions Greek-speaking Jews and Hebrew-speaking Jews in Jerusalem. Professor Harris Birkeland (The Language of Jesus, Oslo, 1954, pp. 10, 11) points out that Aramaic’s being the written language of Palestine when Jesus was on earth does not necessarily mean that it was spoken by the masses. Also, the fact that the Elephantine Papyri belonging to a Jewish colony in Egypt were written in Aramaic does not prove that it was the chief or common tongue in their homeland, for Aramaic was then an international literary language. Of course, the Christian Greek Scriptures contain a number of Aramaisms, Jesus using some Aramaic words, for instance. However, as Birkeland argues, perhaps Jesus ordinarily spoke the popular Hebrew, while occasionally using Aramaic expressions. While it may not be provable, as Birkeland contends, that the common people were illiterate as far as Aramaic was concerned, it does seem that when Luke, an educated physician, records that Paul spoke to the Jews ‘in Hebrew’ and when the apostle said the voice from heaven spoke to him ‘in Hebrew,’ a form of Hebrew was actually meant (though perhaps not the ancient Hebrew) and not Aramaic.—Ac 22:2; 26:14. Lending further support to the use of a form of Hebrew in Palestine when Jesus Christ was on earth are early indications that the apostle Matthew first wrote his Gospel account in Hebrew. For instance, Eusebius (of the third and fourth centuries C.E.) said that “the evangelist Matthew delivered his Gospel in the Hebrew tongue.” (Patrologia Graeca, Vol. XXII, col. 941) And Jerome (of the fourth and fifth centuries C.E.) stated in his work De viris inlustribus (Concerning Illustrious Men), chapter III: “Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed. . . . Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected.” (Translation from the Latin text edited by E. C. Richardson and published in the series “Texte und Untersuchungen zur Geschichte der altchristlichen Literatur,” Leipzig, 1896, Vol. 14, pp. 8, 9.) So, Jesus Christ as a man on earth could well have used a form of Hebrew and a dialect of Aramaic. Tara1 |
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23 | Jesus great teacher? | John 8:28 | Tara1 | 113550 | ||
Hello Cryst, Good question and I would like to respond by saying first that Jesus was taught by his Father. Referring to God in this capacity as his instructor, Jesus said: “When once you have lifted up the Son of man, then you will know that I am he, and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things.” (John 8:28) Also, he truly had empathy and love for mankind. He was a perfect man and knew what he was teaching, so he was the greatest Teacher who ever lived. Tara1 |
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24 | Do i have to get baptized? | Luke 23:43 | Tara1 | 113548 | ||
Hello Searcher66, “Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you.”—Matt. 28:19, 20. This "command" to make disciples (which out of necessity involves teaching" originated neither with men nor with angels. It was given by the resurrected Son of God who could say with reference to himself: “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth.” (Matt. 28:18) To whom was the "command" given? To his followers. Yes, teaching others about God's wonderful purposes in asked of us if we are to be pleasing to our Lord and Savior. Tara1 |
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25 | can you break down "it is finshed" | John 19:30 | Tara1 | 113457 | ||
Hello Mss Z, My understanding of the verse of John 19:30 tells us that not only had Jesus proved his own integrity but he had succeeded in laying the basis for the salvation of mankind—and more important, the vindication of his God's sovereignty! I understand that that is in fact the theme of the Bible. Jehovah God's allowing mankind to suffer demonstrates man's inability to govern himself, the issue of which Satan instigated with Eve when he told her that if she ate of the fruit that she would become like God, knowing good and bad. In other words, deciding on her own what was "right" and what was "wrong". Satan’s rebellion raised the issue of the rightness of God’s sovereignty over all His creatures, of Jehovah’s right to require their full obedience. Jesus proved Satan a lier and we too can show that God has the right to tell us what's right and wrong and demonstrate that we support his sovereignty by obeying him. Tara1 |
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26 | "The Passion of the Christ" | John 19:30 | Tara1 | 113454 | ||
Hello Hank, Commendation from me on such a well written observation. I've not seen the production but what I have seen, I'll have to agree with you. Tara1 |
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27 | Do i have to get baptized? | Luke 23:43 | Tara1 | 113221 | ||
Hello Makarios, I know you realize that Jesus' did give the command to go and make disciples and baptize them. -Matt. 24:14 I agree too that there may be extenuating circumstances where ones didn't get baptized in the early Christian era and perhaps today, but why do you say "NO". I agree with you to an extent. Tara1 |
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28 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 113132 | ||
Colin, I have a couple of questions for you: Is Satan an angel? Where did Satan come from? And one more question; Can you accurately interprete the first prophesy of the Bible for me please, which answers your question? Tara1 |
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29 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112802 | ||
Hi Johnny, Great post. Of course the Father is greater than the Son. He gave (which in itself tells us he is greater) his Son "things", such as authority, kingship, judging power, but that in no way then make him (Jesus) greater than him. Wow what nonsence! It's like talking to a wall, to some on this forum. All through the Scriptures there a comparision between "God" and Jesus. Jesus' God. etc. Tara1 |
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30 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112715 | ||
Hello Frank, And at Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ (God Almighty) which is applied to only Jehovah as at Genesis 17:1 At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” in the Septuigent (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW). Also, to angels as in Psalm 89:6: “Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God (or angels) (bi·beneh´ ´E·lim´)? It must be noted that in no way can these be, a play on words, "false gods" simply because they are not the Almighty "true God YHWH" because it is the Bible that is calling them "gods" and they are from the Hebrew word (elohim) which means "to be strong". Tara1 |
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31 | Who is Greater Jesus Christ or the Fathe | John 14:28 | Tara1 | 112617 | ||
Hello Frank4Yawheh, I agree with you on the posts you have made. This Bible text too tells me that Jesus is theos but the Father Yhwh is the only Almighty God. It says, 1 Corinthians 8:5 to me answers your question by saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” You wouldn't say that Jesus Christ is the Father would you? As I've said before, the Bible calls Jesus "theos" several places but the Father Jehovah must be the only Almighty God and Jesus the "Son of God" but never is he called the "Almighty" theos. Tara1 |
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32 | Why don't we address God as Yahweh? | Bible general Archive 2 | Tara1 | 112306 | ||
Hello Kalos, Execellent post. I might add that the oldest manuscripts of the Septuagint of the Hebrew Scriptures used the YHWH in their Greek and some even translated it into Greek as "AOI". But then the later manuscripts of the Septuagint changed it to "Kurios" or "LORD". Thanks again for your post but the answer to your question is that Jehovah is the Latinized form or "translation" into English just as the Latin form of the Gr. Iesous, corresponds to the Heb. Yeshua or Yehohshua for the English name for Jesus and means “Jehovah Is Salvation”. Tara1 |
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33 | Why don't we address God as Yahweh? | Bible general Archive 2 | Tara1 | 112304 | ||
Hello Tim, Please answer why we have in our Bible according to Revelation 1:1 a revelation from God himself that he gave to Jesus while in heaven, where it tells us to praise "Jah" which is a transliteration of the Hebrew expression haleluYah´, appearing 24 times in the Hebrew Scriptures but now in the Greek Scriptures with the Greek form of it appearing four times at Revelation 19:1-6? So if the Bible uses it shouldn't we? Tara1 |
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34 | Was Jehovah wrong? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112290 | ||
Hello Tim, 1 Corinthians 8:5 to me answers your question by saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” You wouldn't say that Jesus Christ is the Father would you? As I've said before, the Bible calls Jesus "theos" several places but the Father Jehovah must be the only Almighty God and Jesus the "Son of God" but never is he called the "Almighty" theos. Tara1 |
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35 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112185 | ||
Hi CDB, I’ll respond to a question asked of me by a couple of you recently of which is, What’s necessary for one to be saved. I open with the apostle’s Paul and Silas’ reply to the jailer just after their miraculous release from prison bonds, “They said: “Believe on the Lord Jesus and you will get saved, you and your household.” 32 And they spoke the word of Jehovah (according to 7 Hebrew Translations) to him together with all those in his house. 33 And he took them along in that hour of the night and bathed their stripes; and, one and all, he and his were baptized without delay. “ Yes, believing who Jesus is and what he taught is paramount to having divine approval. But more is needed since even the Demons believe. Jesus’ half brother says at James 2:19, “ You believe there is one God, do you? You are doing quite well. And yet the demons believe and shudder.” Along with that believing the previous verse, verse 18 tells us that we must have “faith and works” to be pleasing to God. Notice though that verse 19 also mentions believing that there is one God. If Jesus is “a god” and Jehovah is Almighty God, then does this verse present a problem with this theology? I’ll allow the Scriptures to respond. 1 Corinthians 8:5 answers saying, “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” I will refrain from commenting and allow God’s holy spirit to direct understanding to those whom he draws, as John 6:44 says concerning Jesus “No man can come to me unless the Father, who sent me, draws him”. Thus, what we do with what we have learned and believe must be included. Jesus put it this way at John 14:12, “He that exercises faith in me, that one also will do the works that I do.” Here Jesus tells us that faith in him and the doing of his works are to be included. Jesus’ primary work while on earth was according to his own words were as recorded for us at John 18:37 to Pilate’s question, “Well, then, are you a king?”, Jesus replied: “You yourself are saying that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, that I should bear witness to the truth. Everyone that is on the side of the truth listens to my voice.” As the Scriptures show, the truth to which he bore witness was not just truth in general. It was the all-important truth of what God’s purposes were and are, truth based on the fundamental fact of God’s sovereign will, His right as Creator to rule and His ability to fulfill that will. By his ministry Jesus revealed that truth, contained in “the sacred secret,” mentioned in Eph. 1:9,10 as being God’s Kingdom with Jesus Christ, the “son of David,” serving as King-Priest on the throne. Again at John 17:6,26 are Jesus’ words and they tell us another all-important truth where he says, “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me . . . I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them.” This is emphasized by it being the first thing Jesus prayed for in his model prayer of Matthew 6:9 “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified. “ or “treated holy” or “held sacred”. Yes, Jesus and his followers are “known” for using God’s name, Jehovah and treating it very very special, since it’s the highest name in all the universe. Well, “The conclusion of the matter, everything having been heard, is: Fear the [true] God and keep his commandments. For this is the whole [obligation] of man. 14 For the [true] God himself will bring every sort of work into the judgment in relation to every hidden thing, as to whether it is good or bad. Eccl. 12:13. I hope you enjoyed reading this, as I enjoyed writing it. I hope too that it was non-controversial as I'm trying. Tara1 |
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36 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112108 | ||
Hello CDBJ, My personal answer is a resounding, "Yes"! I've explained this time and again. Tara1 |
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37 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112069 | ||
Hello CDBJ, Your profile says, "I personally trusted in Jesus Christ to be the very Son Of God and my Savior in Oct. 1965, while reading the Bible by myself. I thuoght at the time that I was the only one in the World that knew the message of salvation, as I had never heard it before. I thought that I had a lot of work to do to get this message out, all by myself. Praise the Lord, I found out that there are more of us who love Jesus for who He is and what He did. I have been teaching home Bible studies, and in the past few years the Lord has helped me write Biblical poetry, to try and reach people. I study a lot and I enjoy the Greek of the New Testament. I am very bothered by people who claim to be believers yet don't have a hunger for God's precious Word! You can reach me by E-mail cbickett@neo.rr.com That's exactly what I'm saying here! I have not said anything contrary to your statement in your profile. If we go beyond that then we are adding and taking away from Scripture (Rev. 22:18) by interpretation, using man's philosophy or tradition. I am well versed in what tradition has done to our beloved Word of God and deem it a deplorable atrocity to accept puny man's manipulations bringing dishonor to our Almighty Loving Heavenly Father and of the One whom he sent forth. I believe with all my heart what John 17:3 says to you and me, "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. 4 I have glorified you on the earth, having finished the work you have given me to do. 5 So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was." Don't you? Tara1 |
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38 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112066 | ||
Thank you Searcher, Nothing could be simpler could it? The point being that reason becomes cloudy when you don't want to understand something. The Bible calls these men elohim, and its not me making it up. The Bible calls angels elohim. The Bible calls Jesus Elohim. The Bible calls Jehovah Elohim. The Bible calles Satan theos (greek for elohim) not me. Yes, to many Satan is their god, not a false god since the Bible calls him in 2 Cor 4:4, "the god of this system of things". "But as for me and my household we shall serve Jehovah", Joshua 24:14. I too serve Jesus Christ as John 1:18 says to, as Jehovah God's Son and GOD, only begotten GOD. Tara1 |
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39 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112051 | ||
difference in the references to Jesus in 1:17 and 2:8 and the “Alpha and Omega”. In the margin of certain Hebrew manuscripts of the Masoretic text there are notations that read: “This is one of the eighteen emendations of the Sopherim,” or similar expressions. These emendations (corrections) were made with good intentions because the original passage appeared to show irreverence for God. One of the 18 emendations is found at Habakkuk 1:12 where it tells us that Jehovah cannot die. It says, “You do not die.” Heb., lo´ ta·muth´. This was the original reading, but the Sopherim changed it to read lo´ na·muth´, “we shall not die”. Rev 22:12,13 has the “Alpha and Omega” with “the First and the Last” thus it must refer to Jehovah God and not to Jesus Christ. Tara1 |
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40 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112050 | ||
part 2 6 tells us that those ‘brothers’ (spiritually speaking) of Jesus are referred to as “sons of God.” The Scriptures never refer to the conquering Christians as “sons” to Jesus Christ. (Heb 2:11 and Matt. 12:50 and 25:40 show them as “brothers” not “sons” of Jesus Christ. Revelation 22:12-13 too should be understood to refer to Jehovah, the Father and God of Jesus. This verse contains phrases such as “the first and the last“, obviously another way of saying the “Alpha and the Omega”, likewise “the beginning and the end”. The Alpha and the Omega begins speaking in verse 12 and notice how he continues to identify himself as one who is coming on down through verse 15. Then in verse 16 the question is whether or not the speaker changes or stays the same. If it does not change then the Alpha and the Omega would reference Jesus. Does the simple conclusion that verse 16 begins with the first-person singular “I” followed by the identification of the speaker, “Jesus,” mean that the previous verses are also the words of Jesus? Two examples from this same Bible book show this does not necessarily mean that that must be the case. Rev 1:9 is one example where if we concluded such has to be the case then the apostle John would have to be the Alpha and the Omega. But I know of no one that argues that this is the case. The second example is Rev 22:8. Would anyone argue that John is the one “coming quickly” in verse 7? So, there are indeed sudden changes of speakers in the book of Revelation since Rev 1:1 says, “A revelation by (1) Jesus Christ, which (2) God gave him, . . . And he sent forth his (3) angel and presented it in signs through him (3)(angel) to his slave (4) John.” Consider the thought that the “angel” of verses 12-16 of chapter 22 might very well be speaking for both “the Alpha and the Omega” and Jesus Christ in verses 12-16, read the dialogue between John and one of God’s angels found in Rev 21:9-22:11. Notice in whatever Bible version you read these verses the various breaks for changes of speakers are provided by punctuation in the English language, since it was not there originally. There are many examples in the OT where angels speak for God and even referring to themselves as Jehovah.-Ex 3:2-6; Ac 7:30 “The First and the Last” an expression found three timesin the book of Revelation. Rev 1:17-18 identifies Jesus as the “First and the Last”. Rev 2:8 likewise shows by its context that Jesus is the “First and the Last”. Both of these are in relation to his death and unique resurrection by his Father and interestingly, is the reason for his being called the “firstborn from the dead” as in Rev 1:5 and Col 1:18 Also, notice that the “Alpha and the Omega” is Not used in conjunction with this “the First and Last” in these two places and neither is the phrase “the beginning and the end”. Now notice how an ancient manuscript helps to draw an accurate conclusion. Just a couple hundred years after John’s writing the book of Revelation the Codex Alexandrinus reads “firstborn,” instead of “first,” at both Revelation 1:17 and 2:8; but in 22:12 where the “Alpha and the Omega” is lacking and would be dying and coming to life again, we find “first”, not “firstborn”. This shows that the scribes of Codex A saw a |
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