Results 41 - 60 of 83
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Tara1 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112049 | ||
Alpha and Omega. Who is this “A” to “Z” so to speak, according to the Scriptures? Who is this “first and last,” and “beginning and end” I will note three manuscript variations that lend support to a specific line of thought which have contributed to varying conclusions. By a study of each occurrence of these descriptions or titles, we can determine who was intended to be referred to, according to context. Rev 1:8, according to the NIV and NWT agree that the Alpha and Omega is the Almighty God who is Jehovah and there are no varying ancient manuscripts of this verse. Now let’s look at verse seven and see if the link is legitimate in identifying verse 7 to verse 8 to being Jesus. Who is the one one identified in verse 7 where it says, “the One who is, and who was, and who is to come” is given to One who is clearly distinguished from both the “seven spirits” and “Jesus Christ.” Obviously the only other one from whom “undeserved kindness and peace” could come is the Father. The “coming” of the “Alpha and Omega” in verse 8 is consistent with Jehovah’s “coming” in verse four. Revelation 6:16,17 also tell us of the Father’s coming along with the Lamb. Note the word “their“ in the phrase, “the great day of their wrath has come”. The Textus Reseptus (from which we have the KJV and Jerusalem Bible versions) has the Greek for “His” (autou). The other main manuscripts such as the Sinaitic MS of the fourth century and according to Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 1975, “all minuscule” have the Greek word for “their” (autwn). This interpolation lends support to a line of thought not originally intended. Thus Rev 1:7 speaks of Jesus’ coming. Rev 1:8 speaks of Jehovah’s coming. Rev 1:4 speaks of Jehovah’s coming. The second interpolation of ancient manuscripts is found in Rev 1:11. If this interpolation were correct, if the KJV, Textus Reseptus were correct then Jesus would be an indisputed reference as the Alpha and Omega since verses twelve through twenty show him to be the speaker in this context. What’s interesting is that other Bible versions also add the words “Alpha and Omega”, dishonesty at it’s height, such as, “The Living Bible”, “The Amplified New Testament“, and “Young’s Literal Translation of the Holy Bible”, by Robert Young who even admits that “the oldest MSS.” omit the Alpha and Omega interpolation, in his commentary, “Young’s Concise Commentary on the Holy Bible“, paperback ed 1977 p. 179. Revelation 21:6 too should be understood to refer to Jehovah, the Father and God of Jesus when taken in context. Verse five tells us that the One seated on the throne is the speaker and in verse 6 he identifies himself as the “Alpha and the Omega”. Now I ask of the last of verse 7, who will be his son? The opening words identifies those that conquer as “his son”. Gal 3:26 and 4: |
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42 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112037 | ||
correction, in the above post, where I said NIV, I meant NASB. NIV transtlated elohim here as "heavenly beings", |
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43 | Tara1, Where are angels called gods? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112036 | ||
Hello Searcher, Psalm 8:5 footnote of the NIV p. 748 reads, "God. The Hebrew can be translated "God" or "angels." The KJV translated elohim as "angels". The NIV translated elohim as "God". Both your commentaries and Lexicons acknowledge that elohim is used in the Bible as a title referring to angels, Almighty God, men, false gods or idols, Jesus Christ and Satan the devil. Strongs #433 definitions is:Definition (plural) rulers, judges divine ones angels gods (plural intensive - singular meaning) god, goddess godlike one works or special possessions of God the (true) God God Tara1 |
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44 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112014 | ||
Hi EdB, A. T. Robertson, in his book "Word Pictures in the New Testament, vol. 5 1932 on page 339 admits that "God is thy throne" or "Thy throne is God", either makes good sense. end quote. While having to admit this, A. T. Robertson nonetheless surely takes a different stand on Jesus' God being Jehovah since he was of the Baptist faith, you are correct. The same is true of John 1:1. Robertson though makes the affirmation, not I, that "the article is never meaningless in Greek". Since John 1:1 is void of the Gr. definite article "ho" some reason for this is to be determined. Many Greek scholars conclude therefore that the "theos" in question be understood as qualitative. I am simply explaining a text with sound reasoning that several Bible translations agree upon. Tara1 |
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45 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111997 | ||
Hi, Quotation was from George Wesley Buchanan, in his book; To the Hebrews (AB 36; Garden City, NY; Doubleday, 1972) |
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46 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111989 | ||
Hello CDBJ, We can't know what Thomas was thinking in that statement now can we? I agree the comment was not corrected, thus it is correct. Was Thomas thinking "My Lord (Jehovah) my God (Jehovah) while looking at Jesus? Possibility. Again though Jesus is our Theos John 1:18 tells that “the only-begotten god Gr., monogenes´ theos´, as does John 1:1. Ps 8:4,5 offers insight to this by telling us that even angels are properly called gods. Are they though our Almighty God to be given what Jesus tells us in Matt 4:10 to give only to Jehovah? You tell me. Tara1 |
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47 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111985 | ||
Hello Colin, I really don't feel that I've been challenged. I'll answer your Biblical questions with Biblical answers only. Shoot. Please limit it to a few verses. If you've asked me a question and I didn't answer, I apologize. I don't want to argue, or cause animosity, just discuss Bible verses, and why I believe what the Bible actually says. While I'm writting this, I wonder if you were the one that wrote me concerning the Alpha and Omega? If so, I'll answer that question for you. If not please ignore the question. Tara1 |
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48 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111982 | ||
Hello Hank, Yes, I do enjoy reading what many post on this forum. I also believe that many desire to learn what the Bible teaches and not the man-made philosophy that is posted now and then. Let each judge for himself what is truth and what's not. The Bible is clear even for us simple and uneducated. I only believe and teach what the Holy Scriptures actually teach. You mention "orthodox". Does labeling a teaching as "orthodox" make it truth? Think of "orthodox" christianity's track record. If you like, I'll summorize it since Jesus' day, for you and then you tell me, you support it. Tara1 |
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49 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111981 | ||
part 5. . In Heb. 1:3, the Son is manifestly identified as the apaugasma (reflection or radiance) of God. The expression is similar to Paul's use of eikon tou theou in Col. 1:15 and, furthermore, the phrase informs us that as the image of God, Christ starkly resembles God and reflects his Father's characteristics. He is not, however, equal to His Father (Buchanan 7). The apostle John wrote that the One who sends is greater than He who is sent (John 13:16). Hebrews 7:7 also communicates the principle that the One who blesses is greater than he who is blessed (Luke 1:42). As the apostle, priest, prophet, coworker and reflection of God the Father, the Son mirrors God. Yet, he is not in the same category of being as his Father. The same point could be made about the Greek word character. The word indicates that the character is a faithful reproduction of the original (Lev. 13:28). The character bears the form of the original without being identical to the original (2 Macc. 4:10). The Son thus externally resembles God without being God himself. Time and space do not permit us to dwell any longer on Heb. 1:1-4, however. We must move on to the next section of Hebrews chapter 1. For more information on character, consult A-S 479. Tara1 |
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50 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111980 | ||
part 4. Richard A. Young thinks that the anarthrous construction in Heb. 1:2 focuses on "the nature rather than the personality of the Son." Young thus concludes, "the character of the Son is contrasted with that of the prophets" (68). He subsequently points to the anarthrous construction in Heb. 5:8 as proof of this contention, where the writer of Hebrews reports that although the man Jesus Christ was a Son, "he learned obedience from the things he suffered." Young again notes that the focus in Heb. 5:8 is on "the character of the Son rather than his specific identity" (68). Daniel B. Wallace basically echoes the sentiments of Richard Young when he avers that "a Son" is probably the way Heb. 1:2 should be rendered. Yet overall Wallace feels that there is no fully satisfactory way to compactly and succinctly communicate the writer's intent in Heb. 1:2. Nevertheless, Wallace does decide that the anarthrous construction in Heb. 1:2 "is clearly qualitative," but closer to the indefinite category on the continuum than the definite one (Wallace 245). Ultimately, Wallace writes that Heb. 1:2 speaks of the Son in a way that greatly sets him apart from both angels and men. Should one read this much into the anarthrous construction in Heb. 5:8, however? As we analyze Heb. 1:2, it must be pointed out that the expression concerning Christ could be definite, indefinite, or qualitative or overlap on the continuum. While the expression in Heb. 5:8 could be either definite or indefinite, an indefinite sense alone (while possible) does not seem likely in Heb. 1:2. En huios could well be definite here (as suggested by Ryrie). However, in view of the context and the manner in which the writer utilizes the anarthrous construction vis-à-vis the Son in the rest of the letter, a qualitative or indefinite reading is the most likely one in Heb. 1:2. Although I tend to concur with Wallace and Young in viewing Heb. 1:2 and 5:8 as qualitative, I think that they read too much into the anarthrous construction in Heb. 1:2. The character or quality of sonship may be emphasized in Heb. 1:2, and the writer may emphasize the Son's superiority to the angels and the prophets. These facts, however, do not in and of themselves indicate that the Son God spoke through was ontologically or is ontologically superior to the angels or the prophets. That is, the inarticular usage of the writer of Hebrews does not mean the Son is Deity in the writer's eyes (Heb. 7:28). He became better than the angels when he received a new name from God (Heb. 1:4). Nevertheless, when God spoke through this human Son, he was actually lower than the angels and on par with his human brothers and sisters, being like unto them in all respects (excepting sin). Heb. 1:2 deals with Jesus of Nazareth and his activity in the sphere of humanity. It could well teach, therefore, that Christ was a continuation of the prophets that God through whom God spoke. But he was greater than Moses was since he existed before the prophet and since God created all things through him (cf. Heb. 1:3; 2:6-16; 4:15). In Heb. 1:3, we come to yet another thorny problem in the exordium of Hebrews. Writing in delightfully pictorial terms, the author of Hebrews notes that the Son of God, through whom God made all things (panton), is the apaugasma tes doxes [tou theou] and the character tes hupostaseos autou [i.e., theos]. BAGD indicates that we cannot always clearly discern the meaning of apaugasma. Its active sense is "radiance" or "effulgence"; the passive sense is "reflection" (BAGD 82). This reference work goes on to point out that Origen, Gregory of Nyssa, Theodoret and Chrysostom accepted the active meaning, and F.F. Bruce also suggests construing apaugasma in its active sense in Heb. 1:3 as does A.T. Robertson (Bruce 5; Robertson 557). Harold Attridge offers a perspicuous observation on this matter, when he informs us that "the context of Hebrews itself, where apaugasma is paralleled with 'imprint' (character), may support a passive understanding of apaugasma, although that second term [character] is not entirely free from ambiguity" (Attridge 43). In the final analysis, after discussing Philo and the deuterocanonical book of Wisdom, Attridge has to admit that the meaning of apaugasma is not easy to pin down. He seems to think, however, that the passive sense is more preferable in Heb. 1:3. While the precise meaning of apaugasma and even character may be somewhat ambiguous, the overall thrust of the words in the text are clear enough. |
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51 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111979 | ||
Part 3 The use or non-use of the article is a complex issue and do not want to suggest that it is a problem that one can easily resolve by arbitrarily differentiating between nouns that have the article and nouns that do not: "It is very difficult to set forth exact rules [for the article] that will cover every case" (Young 55). The truthfulness of this contention can be seen when we note that Ignatius of Antioch clearly has no trouble calling Jesus of Nazareth ho theos in his writings (Eph. 18:2) and John 20:28 evidently depicts Thomas addressing Jesus as: ho theos mou kai ho kurios mou. Furthermore, Satan the Devil is seemingly described as ho Theos tou aionos in 2 Cor. 4:4, though certain scholars have suggested (based on the LXX reading of Dan. 5:4) that Jehovah is actually the God alluded to in 2 Cor. 4:4 who blinds the minds of the unbelievers (Scott 85). That is, God allows the minds of the unbelievers to be unreceptive to divine enlightenment (Rom. 11:8; 2 Thess. 2:11, 12). The position taken in this work, however, is that ha Satan is the referent pointed to by the signifiers ho Theos tou aionos in 2 Cor. 4:4. Regardless of how the article is employed elsewhere in the New Testament, it appears that Murray J. Harris is correct when he writes: "When (ho) theos is used, we are to assume that the NT writers have ho pater in mind unless the context makes this sense of (ho) theos impossible" (Harris 47). Indeed, Harris' observation is both astute and pertinent to our discussion when we return to Heb. 1:1, 2 and note that it is ho theos, whom the writer of Hebrews identifies as speaking through the prophets of old. Fittingly, the author of Hebrews utilizes the article when speaking of God the Father, for Heb. 1:1, 2 definitively shows that ho theos spoke to us through a Son (elalesen hemin en huios). So ho Theos mentioned in Heb. 1:1 must be synonymous with ho pater. This point additionally means that YHWH spoken of in the Old Testament (the One also called Alpha and Omega and the Most High God) must be ho pater (not ho huios tou theou). While this fact does not seem to bother him, Murray Harris does acknowledge that "for the author of Hebrews (as for all NT writers, one may suggest) 'the God of our fathers,' Yahweh, was no other than 'the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ' "(Harris 47). This comment in no way implies that Harris disavows the Deity of Jesus Christ or that of the Holy Spirit. Nevertheless, Harris' observations serve to make the pivotal point that the God (ho theos) of Heb. 1:1 is none other than the God and Father of Jesus Christ. In my view, the writer of Hebrews seems to maintain a crucial ontological distinction between the Most High God and His anointed Messiah. With that point established, we must move on to the second issue involving articular and anarthrous constructions in Heb. 1:1-2. As mentioned earlier, when describing the Son of God, the writer of Hebrews tells us that God ultimately and definitively spoke through (instrumental en , the dative) "a Son" (NRSV). This expression (en huios) has been construed in at least two primary ways that we will now review. |
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52 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111978 | ||
Part 2 The Structure and Cotext of Heb. 1:1-8 Hebrews 1:1-4 constitutes the exordium of the treatise written to the first century Christians living in Jerusalem and Judea. It is a monumental accomplishment, not only religiously and theologically, but rhetorically as well. Professor Harold W. Attridge interestingly points out that "the rhetorical artistry of this exordium surpasses that of any other portion of the New Testament" (Attridge 36). George H. Guthrie adds that "with its majestic style and high concentration of programmatic topics, which the author will elaborate throughout the book, Heb. 1:1-4 may be identified as the 'introduction' of the discourse" (Guthrie 119). Indeed, Heb. 1:1-4 will serve as the ab initio of this discussion. Heb. 1:1, 2 initiates the Christological discussion found in the book of Hebrews in a peerless rhetorical fashion. The writer liberally employs the literary device of alliteration as he writes: polumeros kai polutropos palai ho Theos lalesas tois patrasin en tois prophetais ep' eschatou ton hemeron touton elalesen hemin en huios (UBS4). Admittedly, this biblical passage is packed with dynamic and skillful alliteration that instantly grabs the reader's attention. It is imperative, however, not to overlook the vital Christological message contained in the passage because of its literary features. The writer of Hebrews makes it clear that in the pre-messianic age, God (ho theos) communicated to humankind via numerous and diverse means and ways through such prophets as Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Obadiah as well as Daniel. A.T. Robertson also explains "The Old Testament revelation came at different times and in various stages, and ways, as a progressive revelation of God to men. God spoke by dream, by direct voice, by signs, in different ways to different men (Abraham, Jacob, Moses, Elijah, Isaiah, etc.). The two 'manys' are a literary device meaning 'variously' " (Robertson 557). While we surely cannot label what Robertson calls, "the Old Testament revelation," inferior--Heb. 1:1, 2 definitely tells us that the divine revelation recorded in the Old Testament was only a faint adumbration of the things that were to come. For in the last days (eschatou ton hemeron) of the Jewish system of things, God decided to speak through "a Son" (NRSV). Two points concerning Greek articles and anarthrous constructions now deserve our attention. First, we note that the writer of Hebrews utilizes the articular construction ho Theos in Heb. 1:1. The article, writes A.T. Robertson, "is never meaningless in Greek" (Qt. in Young 55). This observation does not mean that we always understand why a particular writer decided to use or not employ the article. In Philo, for example, we read that only the God of the Old Testament (YHWH) is properly called ho Theos (De. Som. 1.229ff). Philo explicitly writes that the Logos, however, is only called Theos (without the article). Origen supports this understanding in his Commentary on John as he too indicates that there is significance in including or omitting the article. |
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53 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111977 | ||
Greetings to you Huron, I've not written to you before. I hope you appreciate this study of this verse. This reply is long but covers the subject well. What you wrote, you only wish it was that easy. :-) No, this verse in the Greek does not say that. Hebrews 1:8 says: “But with reference to the Son: ‘God is your [the Son’s] throne forever and ever.’” This shows that Jesus’ throne, his office or authority as a sovereign, has its source in Jehovah the Almighty God. True, the Authorized Version, or King James Version, renders Hebrews 1:8 this way: “But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.” Thus, these translators have it that Jesus is shown to be the same as Almighty God. This cannot be correct. First, note the context. In many translations, either in the main text or in the margin, Hebrews 1:9 reads, “God, your God, anointed you.” This makes it clear that the one addressed in verse eight is not God, but one who worships God and is anointed by him. Secondly, it should be noted that Hebrews 1:8, 9 is a quotation from Psalm 45:6, 7, more specifically the Greek Septuagint which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Surely the writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God and neither did the writer of Hebrews think that Jesus was Almighty God. Commenting on this, scholar B. F. Westcott said: “It is scarcely possible that [‘Elo·him´, “God”] in the original can be addressed to the king. . . . Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God.’” The New World Translation and a number of other translations render Hebrews 1:8 as, “God is your throne.” (Please note: An American Translation, Moffatt; also the marginal reading in American Standard Version, Revised Standard Version and The New English Bible.) This makes it clear that the “Son,” Jesus Christ, has a God who is higher than he is. Quite frankly, and many take offense to being frank but the truth of the matter is Hebrews 1:8 in translation you used, is mistranslated to support the trinity doctrine. Greek scholars Edgar j. Goodspeed, James Moffatt and Stephen T. Byington agree with the NWT of this verse. Read and see for yourself the alternative readings for this verse offered by the RSV and NEB, and you will see a definite theological bias in the KJV. So, in Greek, the verse reads as follows: pros de ton huion ho thronos sou ho Theos eis ton aiona tou aionos kai he rhabdos tes euthutetos rhabdos tes basileias autou (Westcott-Hort). Also the TEV translates the passage in a way that would seem to uphold the notion that Christ is God on some level. It says: "About the Son, however, God said: "Your kingdom, O God, will last forever and ever! You will rule over your people with justice," whereas Byington's Bible in Living English renders Heb. 1:8 thusly: "but as to the Son 'God is your throne forever and ever, and the scepter of integrity is the scepter of his reign.' From a comparison of the two Bible versions cited above, translational and theological questions immediately come to the fore. Heb. 1:8 makes us wonder how we are to understand what the book of Hebrews says about the ontological status of our Lord and Savior. Does the book of Hebrews teach that Jesus is Almighty God? Alternatively, does it ontologically subordinate him to the Father? Let’s approach Heb. 1:8 from three primary perspectives: (1) From an Old Testament perspective (2) From a cotextual perspective. That is, I will examine the word proskuneo in Heb. 1:6 and try to discern how its meaning bears on one's understanding of Theos and thronos in Heb. 1:8. (3) Lastly, I will consider the syntax of Heb. 1:8 and attempt to determine how one either should or might construe the word order in the said passage. I will argue that Heb. 1:8 should be interpreted as a royal account that religiously delineates the kingly status of the risen and exalted Christ without attributing to him, full Deity. We will therefore begin by outlining the structure of Heb. 1:1-8 and discussing verse by verse how each unit of the text contributes to understanding Heb. 1:8. Tara1 |
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54 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111934 | ||
Jesus’ God is Jehovah. Without question Jesus is to be loved, and honored as the Son of God. He willingly left his heavenly position in the spirit realm became a mere man and died on behalf of mankind as a redemptive offer accepted by Almighty God. John 3:16 Here are a few of the many instances that refer to “Jesus’ God“. This helps me to understand and appreciate who’s who on the matter of Jesus and Jesus’ God. 1) Matt. 3:16, “ After being baptized Jesus immediately came up from the water; and, look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw descending like a dove God’s spirit coming upon him. 17 Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” These verses tell us that God and Jesus are distinct, and says that Jesus is God’s Son. It does not say “the Father’s Son” but God’s Son. Furthermore, God approved of him. Certainly if Jesus were God incarnate (an ancient Egyptian belief) such an approval would be unnecessary. 2) Matt. 4:3, “If you are a son of God,” Jesus is one of many sons of God. This verse does not say that Jesus is God. But John 1:18 tells us that certainly Jesus is to be recognized in his high position by saying that he (Jesus) is God’s only- begotten god, as the most reliable manuscripts call him. 3) Matt. 4:7, “Jesus said to him: “Again it is written, ‘You must not put Jehovah your God to the test.’” Quoting Deut. 6:16 Jesus tells us who God is. Here Jesus was not speaking of himself but of his Father and the succeeding verses then sum it up even clearer by telling us who should be honored as the Almighty God and who should be honored as the Son of God. By saying in verse 10, “ For it is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’ Jesus was quoting Deut 10:20 4) Matt. 27:46, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” Jesus has a God by saying , “My God”. Jehovah never says, “my God”. 5) Mark 1:24, “the Holy One of God.” Speaking of Jesus, he is of God, clearly not God. 6) When Mark 5:7 says that Jesus, is the Son of the Most High God, and James 2:19 says, “ You believe there is one God, do you? You are doing quite well,” how is the fact that Jesus is also called Theos in John 1:1 and John 20:24-29 to be understood? Clearly Jesus’ being Almighty God’s first and only direct “Son” makes him one to be honored as such but not though to be honored as the One from who he came. That honor goes only to the Father, Jesus’ God. 7) John 17:3, RS: “[Jesus prayed to his Father:] This is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God [“who alone art truly God,” NE], and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” Jesus referred not to himself but to his Father in heaven as “the only true God.” Jesus, not being a “false” god but a god in the sense of God’s only begotten god,( John 1:18) is honored as such second only to his God and Father Jehovah. 8) John 20:17, RS: “Jesus said to her [Mary Magdalene], ‘Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” So to the resurrected Jesus, the Father was God, just as the Father was God to Mary Magdalene. Interestingly, not once in Scripture do we find the Father addressing the Son as “my God.” That Jehovah was truly the Father or Life-Giver to this firstborn Son and, hence, that this Son was actually a creature of God is evident from Jesus’ own statements. He pointed to God as the Source of his life, saying, “I live because of the Father.” According to the context, this meant that his life resulted from or was caused by his Father, even as the gaining of life by dying men would result from their faith in Jesus’ ransom sacrifice. John 6:56, 57. Tara1 |
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55 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111932 | ||
In short, Jesus' God is Jehovah God. I love both Jehovah and Jesus and feel the Bible clearly tells be to do that. Tara1 |
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56 | Who is Jesus' God? | Not Specified | Tara1 | 111930 | ||
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57 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 111931 | ||
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58 | Why is YHWH found in the New Testament? | Matthew | Tara1 | 110299 | ||
Hello CDBJ, To believe or not believe that Jesus is Almighty God is a personal choice one has to make. I base, as you probably do too my choice on what I have been told, what research I have done, and finally what the Father has given me. Speaking of Jesus first then Jehovah, John 6:44 tells me, "No man can come to me unless the Father, who sent me, draws him. Our getting to know the truth about the “Word” is not a matter of mere academic interest. It is something that has a bearing on our everlasting future. This is clear from Jesus’ words: “Eternal life means knowing you as the only true God, and knowing Jesus your messenger as Christ.” (John 17:3, An American Translation) Such knowing of God and Christ means knowing them as persons and enjoying a good relationship with them. Clearly, one who has a distorted view of Jesus’ identity and position in relation to his Father would know neither the Father nor the Son. But I am talking about the "apostasy" and in this context, it does not mean just a lapse or a falling away due to spiritual weakness. The Greek word here used for “apostasy” meant, among other things, a “defection” or a “revolt.” Several translations render it as “rebellion.” William Barclay’s version states: “That day cannot come until the Great Rebellion has taken place.” The Jerusalem Bible calls it “the Great Revolt.” Therefore, in the context of what Paul is discussing, “apostasy” means a revolt against true worship. How and when did this apostasy, this rebellion, develop? At 2 Thessalonians 2:6, Paul wrote, regarding his day, about “the thing that acts as a restraint” on the lawless one. What was that? It was the restraining force of the apostles. Their presence, with their powerful gifts bestowed by holy spirit, prevented apostasy from then becoming an epidemic. (Acts 2:1-4; 1 Corinthians 12:28) But when the apostles had died, by about the end of the first century, the restraining brakes were removed. Tara1 |
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59 | Why is YHWH found in the New Testament? | Matthew | Tara1 | 110298 | ||
Hello again, The left hand side is what is considered my many as the oldest and thus the best mss but still isn't thought by any scholar as what the original 100 per cent must have been. For years we thought and perhaps some still do, that the King James Version based on what is referred to as the Textus Receptus or “Received Text” was the most reliable ms. The NWT is based primarily on the Westcott and Hort's work but also Hebrew mss and other ancient mss in it's translation for the New Testament. Therefore Jehovah is found in it(NWT). Jehovah in the New Testament is also found in the following New Testament Bibles for similar reasons. (Well over 200 translations) http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/jhvh.htm |
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60 | Why is YHWH found in the New Testament? | Matthew | Tara1 | 110287 | ||
If the left handed side were indeed the "original" as you say, then it would have contained the Tetragrammaton. Evidence shows that kurios was subsituted for it. | ||||||
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