Results 181 - 200 of 1935
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Results from: Notes Author: BradK Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
181 | Isn't Paul free of sin? | Rom 7:25 | BradK | 225998 | ||
Phillip: Please my friend, your lack of time in the Lord is now clearly evident. You're digging yourself into a hole. Stop digging:-)You've come up with specious doctrines that defy support from Church History! Where does 1 Cor. 10:13 say "you can resist all sin"? At best your ignorance of words and their meaning has become all too obvious! Let's stop the charade of proof-texting! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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182 | Isn't Paul free of sin? | Rom 7:25 | BradK | 225997 | ||
Hello Phillip, I'm not really trying to create a debate on this matter. That's not my intent. What exactly is the point you're trying to make? I understand what these scriptures say- I've been walking in the Lord for 25 years:-) Again, you're proof-texting! Just because these verses mention perfection, being blameless, or righteouness, etc. doesn't mean we take them and thereby develop a doctrine based upon selective use of meaning! Before this drags on, you really need to study and understand the context of each of these scriptures! Context is extremely important. To ignore it is to stray from sound hermenuetics. Words mean what the original author intended- in proper context. Does this make sense? Here would be a couple questions I'd pose to you: 1. Does the reader determine the meaning of a text or does the author? 2. How exactly have you arrived at your position. Who has influenced you? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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183 | Isn't Paul free of sin? | Rom 7:25 | BradK | 225947 | ||
Hello Phillip, I'm not in agreement with your line of reasoning here. If I may be blunt: You're proof-texting to support your presupposition! You state, "It is possible to be free from/of sin?" Really, how so? Where does scripture explicitly teach this? 1 Cor 10:13 reads, "No temptation has overtaken you but such as is common to man; and God is faithful, who will not allow you to be tempted beyond what you are able, but with the temptation will provide the way of escape also, so that you will be able to endure it." Notice it does not read 'no sin has overtaken you...'! The verse is not saying we're free from sin! Please re-read it. Temptation is the attempt to cause someone to sin- not sin itself! Your argument is falling short of sound exegesis! Perfectionism is nowhere taught in scripture! If there is anyone else revealed in scripture to be perfect-other than the Lord Jesus- I'm not aware of their mention! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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184 | What makes a tithe a tithe? | Matt 23:23 | BradK | 225683 | ||
Hi Gary, Thanks for your clarification! For the most part, I'm in agreement with you my friend:-) We could certainly note the window giving her mite in Mark 12:42-44 as exemplifying the sacrificial aspect of (her) giving! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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185 | What makes a tithe a tithe? | Matt 23:23 | BradK | 225679 | ||
Hi Gary, You're making a very general statement. However, in the NT Paul refers to a principle of grace and a "cheerful giver" (2 Cor. 9:6-7) So, what are we to give and upon what basis are we to do so? Would you elaborate your view on giving? BradK |
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186 | psalms... judgement chapter 1 verse 5 | Rev 20:15 | BradK | 225670 | ||
Hi Ariel, IMO, eternal punishment is just that... eternal! Note Matt. 25:46, "These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life."(NASB) Eternal life has the corrolary of eternal punishment. The noun 'punishment' (Gr. kolasin) is modified by the adj. "eternal" (Gr. aionion). Here "aionion" would appear to be used in the sense of "lifelong" or "enduring". As Hodge notes regarding Future Punishment: "Our Lord in his account of the final judgment says, that the wicked shall go away into everlasting punishment; but the righteous into life eternal." In fairness, there are varying views regarding what this future punishment and it's duration entail! Time doesn't permit me to elaborate... maybe later:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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187 | Who is revealing God's wrath? | Rom 1:18 | BradK | 225582 | ||
Hello wick08, Let me try to elaborate and provide more specific exegesis: (I'll quote from notes and Commentary of Dr. Campbell) "The subject of verse 18 is the wrath of God. The Greek word for wrath is "orge' and may be translated, anger, indignation, or passion. the genetive case simply indicates that this wrath belongs to God, i.e. God reveals His own wrath against man's sinful characteristics." The word translated "reveals" comes from two Greek words, "apo" and "kalupto" which can translate as unveiled, manifested, and appears. It is in the present tense suggesting that with the onset of man's sin the wrath of God begins and continues against it. (John 3:36). Regarding the place from which the wrath of God is revealed "from heaven" would be the normal place of God's abode (Eph. 6:9, 1 Pet. 3:22). Since the wrath Paul speaks of is a direct expression of God's anger, it naturally follows that it comes forth from where God is- from heaven! The wrath of God is revealed "against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men". unrighteousness means sinful man's injustice, wrongdoing, and wickedness. It represents the opposite of that which is right! As the genitive case conveys, it is man's sin, that which he has produced and as such that which belongs to him! 'It's important to note that God's wrath is "against" (epi) , upon the ground of, on the basis of the impiety and injustice practiced by men. This wrath is not directed against men themselves, but against their sin': As Campell further notes, "the language used here could be interpreted to mean that God's wrath is revealed on the ground of or basis of their ungodliness and unrighteousness, i.e., their sin is that which has elicited the wrath of God" So, I say all that to demonstrate that it is the sin of man that is cause depravity. Rom. 1:24 tells us, "For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened." Then, vs. 28, "...And just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper," (NASB) [Commentary of Romans 1-8, Dr. Ernest Campbell] I hope this better answers your question. BradK |
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188 | Noah entered the ark--exactly when? | Gen 7:1 | BradK | 225525 | ||
Hello brother, Yes, it does symbolize the reality:-) However, I truly believe Paul is referring to "spiritual" baptism- the reality- in Rom. 6 (Note: 1 Cor. 12:13, also Gal 3:27) BradK |
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189 | Noah entered the ark--exactly when? | Gen 7:1 | BradK | 225515 | ||
Hello lionheart, You are correct. Yet, if we go to 1 Peter 3:20, the context here is suffering for righteousness sake! Further, if the ark is symbolic of baptism, which baptism - spiritual or water? Notably, the "eight persons were brought safely through water" remained dry and those that perished got wet! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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190 | God can't die or look on sin! | Matt 27:46 | BradK | 225434 | ||
EdB, Welcome back to the Forum, brother! Good to hear from you. God's blessing for you this coming New Year! BradK |
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191 | Trinity or Oneness? | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 225398 | ||
Hello wordoer, I'm having difficulty making sense out of your post:-) You said, "These verses make an idea of a trinity to be very restrictive, not allowing others to be one as Jesus requested of His Father." Could you clarify this? What exactly do you mean by "very restrictive? In what sense? Merry CHRISTmas! BradK |
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192 | Trinity or Oneness? | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 225392 | ||
Hello fellowlaborer, Thank you for the kind words. Yes, I have noted what you pointed out:-) Actually, the KJV reads, "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." By comparison, the NASB reads, "For there are three that testify" Most Bibles have a footnote to this verse due to lack of supporting manuscript evidence. As the late Dr. Weust noted, "There is general agreement among textual critics that the contents of this verse are spurious, and do not belong to the original text. “The fact and the doctrine of the Trinity do not depend upon this spurious addition” (Robertson)." Merry CHRISTmas, BradK |
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193 | Trinity or Oneness? | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 225389 | ||
Hello whereisthruebalance, Welcome to the Forum. The Trinity is an essential doctrine of Christian Orthodoxy founded in scripture, while Oneness is a Trinitarian heresy. The doctrine of the Trinity deals with and describes the nature of God and asserts the following: There is one and only one God. God eternally exists in three distinct persons. The Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. The Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Father, the Father is not the Spirit, etc. [Theopedia.com] Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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194 | Moses appeared from where? | Matt 17:3 | BradK | 225378 | ||
Hello drbloor, Thank you for your time and the spirit in which you answered the questions from the forum on Matt. 17:9. I appreciate the discussion and study. You initially stated, “You will note that in Matt. 17:19 Jesus tells his disciples, "Tell the vision to no one", indicating that the appearance of Moses and Elijah was in fact a "vision" and not a reality - hence neither Moses nor Elijah came from anywhere as they were not actually present.” So, to reiterate I replied that I was, “…understanding that you take this passage in Matthew as figurative vs. literal?” Is this correct? Here would be my further concerns/questions based on your argument: 1. By a “plain”, “straight-forward” reading I am not implying anything “superficial” but an understanding by someone of average or better intelligence with a basic knowledge of scripture- myself for instance! Frankly, I’ve never heard nor understood the meaning you’re implying? How would someone such as this understand what Matthew is saying? In this vain, what is the authorial intent- what did Matthew mean by what he said?; 2. You are correct about the 11 usages of 'horama’ in the NT. While this can and should be strongly considered, I understand that meaning is determined by the use of a word in context, and how the writer uses the term. In other words, context determines meaning!; Vision(s) in the Bible would generally be a visual experience of any kind, but usually refer to supernatural revelations of a prophet; 3. In verse 9, ‘horama’ could mean a ‘sight’ or ‘vision” but may also be rendered “something seen”. Vincent renders it as “spectacle”. I see nothing in the previous verses that would lead me to believe he’s referring merely to a “vision” and not a reality! It seems pretty straight forward that Matthew is speaking to an actual event!; 4. Then, back in verse 3, we have “And behold, there appeared to them Moses and Elijah, talking with him” (ESV). What about this is suggestive that this is only a vision? Quite the contrary, the grammar seems to indicate otherwise. ‘Horao’ means ‘to see’- to see with the eye referring to the thing seen (objectively). The use of the indicative mood would further indicate it is a fact, describing it as real and actual; 5. What about the parallel passage in Mark 9:9? As previously mentioned by another poster, how do you factor this account? It reads, “And as they were coming down the mountain, he charged them to tell no one what they had seen, until the Son of Man had risen from the dead.” Tell no one what they had seen to me does not imply any vision, but in fact a reality. We have a different Greek word for ‘see’ used, ‘eidon’ but again in the indicative mood indicating a simple statement of fact! Wuest’s Expanded Translation adds this clarity, “And while they were coming down out of the mountain, He charged them that they should narrate the things which they saw to not even one person, except when the Son of Man should arise out from amongst the dead.”(WWSGNT); 6. Lastly, does your conclusion agree with what others who have studied this passage? Of note, John Gill says in his Exposition of the Bible, “by the "vision" is meant, as it is explained in Mark, "what things they had seen"; as Moses and Elias, and the bright cloud that overshadowed them, and Christ transfigured before them, in a surprising, glorious manner. These Christ strictly ordered Peter, James, and John, to speak of to no man whatever; no, not their fellow disciples; who either would be apt to disbelieve them, on account of the greatness of them, as Thomas did the resurrection of Christ afterwards; or lest they should be troubled and displeased, that they were not admitted to the same sight; and especially not to the multitude, or to any other person,” With all due respect, I do not arrive at the conclusion you’re proposed based upon my reading and study of this passage:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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195 | Moses appeared from where? | Matt 17:3 | BradK | 225364 | ||
Hello drbloor, So, I'm understanding that you take this passage in Matthew as figurative vs literal? I understand the Greek and it's useage, etc. However, a couple questions come to mind: 1. Does the context support this?; 2. Would a plain straight-forward reading arrive at this interpretation? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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196 | Paradise is Heaven? Would you clarify? | Luke 16:22 | BradK | 225358 | ||
Hello carefree, Keep in mind "where" Jesus is as a result of the Ascension: "So then, when the Lord Jesus had spoken to them, He was received up into heaven and sat down at the right hand of God." (Mark 16:19); "which He brought about in Christ, when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places," (Eph 1:20) His Ascension was predicted: Ps 68:18; Jn 6:62; 7:33; 13:1, 3, 33, 36; 14:2–5, 12, 28; 16:5, 7, 10, 17, 28; 17:13; 20:17 (cf. Ps 110:1); Jn 3:13 Several reasons for His ascension (though not exhaustive) are: 1. To sit at the Father’s right hand (i.e., the place of authority and rulership): Ps 110:1; Mat 26:64; Mk 16:19; 2. To enter into His glory: Luke 24:26; 1 Tim. 3:16; 3. To return to His Father: Jn 13:1–3; 4. To prepare a place for believers: Jn 14:2–3; 5. To send the Spirit: Jn 16:7–8 (cf. Ac 1:5; 2:1–4; 6. To be highly exalted: Acts 2:32–35; Eph 1:20–23; Php 2:9–11; Heb 7:26 Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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197 | Thanksgiving | Ps 92:1 | BradK | 225294 | ||
Happy Thanksgiving Forum Ps 92:1 It is good to give thanks to the LORD And to sing praises to Your name, O Most High; Ps 92:2 To declare Your lovingkindness in the morning And Your faithfulness by night, May we give thanks for our many blessings! BradK |
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198 | John 1:1 and John 1:14; Is Jesus God? | 2 Cor 13:11 | BradK | 225266 | ||
Hello Martin, As a long-term memeber of the Forum, I'm well aware of the Terms of Use, etc :-) Was there something in my answer you found mis-directed? In my response to julcol, I wasn't implying or suggesting that the Nicene Creed is our authority or is in any way equal to scripture! It isn't! To the contrary. My reference to the Council of Nicea was simply to indicate the (original) source of the JW's error- Arianism! Nothing in my response was to direct her anywhere but scripture! I'm not sure why your reply was so cautionary? Are you by chance a member of the Watchtower Organization? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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199 | scriptues for the falsely accused? | 2 Tim 3:12 | BradK | 225201 | ||
Alegrio, Your response makes very little sense! What are you trying to say? BradK |
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200 | did i choose my mom? | Rom 9:11 | BradK | 225187 | ||
Hello legs, I don't know how I could make my answer any clearer! How can we possibly have any ability to "choose to be born to the mother we have"??? We don't choose anything in this sense. As Eph 1:5 states, " He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will,"(NASB). So, it is God Who predestines us and it is according to the kind intention of His will, not ours! Nothing in scripture says otherwise. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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