Results 161 - 180 of 208
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Results from: Notes Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
161 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Truthfinder | 88022 | ||
Hi Tim, Yes, Tim I agree if Christ died for Manasseh (guilty of shedding innocent blood in great quantity) which he did, (2Ki 21:10-16) then he did indeed die for "all". I agree with you on your arguement here. But show me please a verse that says that God's active force or holy spirit is specifically Jesus. I thought Jesus' second coming was much later than pennecost of 33 C.E. John 14:26, "But the helper, the holy spirit, which the Father will send in my name, that one will teach YOU all things and bring back to YOUR minds all the things I told YOU. Honestly, I have never read/argued the point of the Holy Spirit being Jesus as God, but I believe I have a sound basis for believing the way I do, and certainly agree that any time and every time Almighty God Jehovah accomplishes/ed something, his active force had to have been involved. Sincerly. Truthfinder |
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162 | What language did Jesus speak? | Acts 21:40 | Truthfinder | 72899 | ||
Hi again, I understand that Josephus wrote that Matthew originally wrote Matthew in Hebrew and I have a copy of the New Testament in Hebrew and translate it. The only university study I have completed is with Daniel Sharon with Rice University, Houston, TX. I mainly study what scholars debate concerning certain texts. I do have a question for you though. How do you feel about how bias has played in Bible translation? As you no doubt know, grammatically certain texts can be accurately translated at least a couple of different ways. I will give you an example or two sometime. Truthfinder |
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163 | Prove all things hold fast to the good.. | 1 Cor 15:1 | Truthfinder | 87460 | ||
Hi Goodnewsminister, Have you left the forum or are you coming back to dialogue perhaps with a few of us that agree with almost everything you've said? I have patiently sat back and read the replies, rebutals, but wanted to join and support you but perhaps waited too long. I understand frustration when we find so few that cannot understand/accept even the basics of Biblical truths as you have presented. Come back, be patient, and let's continue expounding these basics and if even one individual listens it will be worth the time and effort. Truthfinder |
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164 | Where did the Holy Spirit go? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83418 | ||
Very good, I for one agree with your thoughts. Might I add mine? John 5:18, Revised Standard Verson: “This was why the Jews sought all the more to kill him, because he not only broke the sabbath but also called God his Father, making himself equal with God.” I agree it was the unbelieving Jews who reasoned that Jesus was attempting to make himself equal with God by claiming God as his Father. While properly referring to God as his Father, Jesus never claimed equality with God. He straightforwardly answered the Jews: “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing.” (John 5:19, RS; see also John 14:28) John 10:36 says, 36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?” It was those unbelieving Jews, too, who claimed that Jesus broke the Sabbath, but they were wrong also about that. Jesus kept the Law perfectly, and he declared: “It is lawful to do good on the sabbath.”—Matt. 12:10-12, RS. Philippians 2:5, 6 comes into play here. The KJ reads: “Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.” (Dy has the same wording. JB reads: “he did not cling to his equality with God.”) However, in NW the latter portion of that passage reads: “who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure [Greek, har·pag·mon´], namely, that he should be equal to God.” Not only the NWT but also the RS, NE, TEV, NAB convey the same thought. But which thought agrees with the context? Verse 5 counsels Christians to imitate Christ in the matter here being discussed. Could they be urged to consider it “not robbery,” but their right, “to be equal with God”? Surely not! However, they can imitate one who “gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.” (NW) Compare Genesis 3:5 where Satan told Eve that she would be equal to God if she were to eat of the forbidden fruit. Such a translation also agrees with Jesus Christ himself, who said: “The Father is greater than I.” -John 14:28. I thus see no contridiction. Note what The Expositor’s Greek Testament says: “We cannot find any passage where [har·pa´zo] or any of its derivatives [including har·pag·mon´] has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize,’ ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense ‘grasp at’ into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’”—(Grand Rapids, Mich.; 1967), edited by W. Robertson Nicoll, Vol. III, pp. 436, 437. Truthfinder |
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165 | What does inspiration mean? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Truthfinder | 94223 | ||
Well said Tim, We know that God is spoken of as accomplishing work with his “finger(s),” such as writing the Ten Commandments on stone tablets (Ex 31:18; De 9:10), and I am sure you too watched the movie. You mention in your last paragraph that "always presented. . ." or as I understand your thought that God's writings were "always" performed by "man". But think about the account recorded in Ex 31:18 and De 9:10. Did Jehovah God have this written by someone other than Moses? Something to consider. Truthfinder |
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166 | Searching for the truth | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75201 | ||
(part 2) While some translators use the word “worship” in the majority of cases where pro·sky·ne o describes persons’ actions toward Jesus, the evidence does not warrant one’s reading too much into this rendering. Rather, the circumstances that evoked the obeisance correspond very closely with those producing obeisance to the earlier prophets and kings. (Compare Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 15:25; 20:20 with 1 Samuel 25:23, 24; 2 Samuel 14:4-7; 1 Kings 1:16; 2 Kings 4:36, 37.) The very expressions of those involved often reveal that, while they clearly recognized Jesus as God’s representative, they rendered obeisance to him, not as to God or a deity, but as “God’s Son,” the foretold “Son of man,” the Messiah with divine authority.—Matt. 14:32, 33; 28:5-10, 16-18; Luke 24:50-52; John 9:35, 38. While earlier prophets and also angels had accepted obeisance, Peter stopped Cornelius from rendering such to him. And the angel (or angels) of John’s vision twice stopped John from doing so, referring to himself as a “fellow slave” and concluding with the exhortation to “worship God.”—Acts 10:25, 26; Rev. 19:10; 22:8, 9. Evidently Christ’s coming had brought in new relationships affecting standards of conduct toward others of God’s servants. He taught his disciples that “one is your teacher, whereas all you are brothers . . . your Leader is one, the Christ.” (Matt. 23:8-12) For it was in him that the prophetic figures and types found their fulfillment, even as the angel told John that “the bearing witness to Jesus is what inspires prophesying.” (Rev. 19:10) Jesus was David’s Lord, the greater than Solomon, the prophet greater than Moses. (Luke 20:41-43; Matt. 12:42; Acts 3:19-24) The obeisance rendered those men prefigured that due Christ. Peter therefore rightly refused to let Cornelius make too much of him. So, too, John, by virtue of having been declared righteous or justified by God as an anointed Christian, called to be a heavenly son of God and a member of his Son’s kingdom, was in a different relationship to the angel(s) of the revelation than were the Israelites to whom angels earlier appeared. As the apostle Paul had written: “Do you not know that we shall judge angels?” (1 Cor. 6:3) The angel(s) evidently recognized this change of relationship when rejecting John’s obeisance. On the other hand, Christ Jesus has been exalted by his Father to a position second only to God, so that “in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.”—Phil. 2:9-11; compare Daniel 7:13, 14, 27. In view of all this, how are we to understand Hebrews 1:6, which shows that even the angels render “worship” to the resurrected Jesus Christ? While many translations of this text render pro·sky·néo as “worship,” some render it by such expressions as “bow before” (The Bible—An American Translation) and “pay homage” (The New English Bible). No matter what English term is used, the original Greek remains the same and the understanding of what it is that the angels render to Christ must accord with the rest of the Scriptures. If the rendering “worship” is preferred, then it must be understood that such “worship” is only of a relative kind. For Jesus himself emphatically stated to Satan that “it is Jehovah your God you must worship [form of pro·sky·ne·o], and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.” (Matt. 4:8-10; Luke 4:7, 8) True, Psalm 97, which the apostle evidently quotes at Hebrews 1:6, refers to Jehovah God as the object of the ‘bowing down,’ and still this text was applied to Christ Jesus. (Ps. 97:1, 7) However, the apostle previously had shown that the resurrected Christ became the “reflection of [God’s] glory and the exact representation of his very being.” (Heb. 1:1-3) Hence, if what we understand as “worship” is apparently directed to the Son by angels, it is in reality being directed through him to Jehovah God, the Sovereign Ruler, “the One who made the heaven and the earth and sea and fountains of waters.”—Rev. 14:7; 4:10, 11; 7:11, 12; 11:16, 17; compare 1 Chronicles 29:20; Revelation 5:13, 14. On the other hand, the renderings “bow before” and “pay homage” (instead of “worship”) are in no way out of harmony with the original language, either the Hebrew of Psalm 97:7 or the Greek of Hebrews 1:6, for such translations convey the basic sense of both sha·hhah and pro·sky·ne·o. Truthseeker |
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167 | Ref. on animals having no spirit? | James 2:26 | Truthfinder | 93945 | ||
Hi Tuggy, I agree with you. If you have read my posts you would have seen very very similar understanding as to what the Holy Scriptures say about the soul. Very well put. There are a few points I would like to add. King David wrote: “I foresaw the Lord always before my face; for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved . . . moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell [Sheol], neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.” (Ps 15:8-10, LXX, Bagster [16:8-11, NW]) On the day of Pentecost, 33 C.E., the apostle Peter applied this psalm to Jesus Christ, in declaring to the Jews the truth of Christ’s resurrection. (Ac 2:25-31) The Scriptures, both the Hebrew and the Greek, therefore show that it was the “soul” of Jesus Christ that was resurrected. Jesus Christ was ‘put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit.’ (1Pe 3:18) “Flesh and blood cannot inherit God’s kingdom,” said the apostle Paul. (1Co 15:50) This would also exclude flesh and bones. Flesh and bones do not have life unless they have blood, for the blood contains the “soul” or is that which is necessary for the life of the creature of flesh.—Ge 9:4. Throughout the Scriptures it is evident that there is no “immaterial soul” separate and distinct from the body. As you have said, the soul dies when the body dies. Even of Jesus Christ it is written that “he poured out his soul to the very death.” His soul was in Sheol. He had no existence as a soul or person during that time. (Isa 53:12; Ac 2:27; compare Eze 18:4.)He trusted his God totally. He existed only in God's memory for 3 days. Consequently, in the resurrection there is no joining again of soul and body. However, whether spiritual or earthly, the individual must have a body or organism, for all persons, heavenly or earthly, possess bodies. To be again a person, one who has died would have to have a body, either a physical or a spiritual body. The Bible says: “If there is a physical body, there is also a spiritual one.”—1Co 15:44. But is the old body reassembled in the resurrection? or is it a precise replica of the former body, made exactly as it was when the person died? The Scriptures answer in the negative when they deal with the resurrection of Christ’s anointed brothers to life in the heavens: “Nevertheless, someone will say: ‘How are the dead to be raised up? Yes, with what sort of body are they coming?’ You unreasonable person! What you sow is not made alive unless first it dies; and as for what you sow, you sow, not the body that will develop, but a bare grain, it may be, of wheat or any one of the rest; but God gives it a body just as it has pleased him, and to each of the seeds its own body.”—1Co 15:35-38. The heavenly ones receive a spiritual body, for it pleases God for them to have bodies suitable for their heavenly environment. And is it immortal? Jesus gained immortality when resurrected and likewise the anointed Christians called to reign with him in the heavens (1Pe 1:3, 4), the promise is that they share with Christ in the likeness of his resurrection. (Ro 6:5) Thus, as in the case of their Lord and Head, the anointed members of the Christian congregation who die faithful receive a resurrection to immortal spirit life, so that “this which is mortal puts on immortality.” (1Co 15:50-54) As with Jesus, immortality in their case does not mean simply everlasting life, or mere freedom from death. That they, too, are granted “the power of an indestructible life” as fellow heirs with Christ is seen from the apostle Paul’s association of incorruptibility with the immortality they attain. (1Co 15:42-49) Over them “the second death has no authority.”—Re 20:6 This grant of immortality to the Kingdom heirs is all the more remarkable, in view of the fact that even God’s angels are shown to be mortal, despite their possessing spirit bodies, not carnal ones. Angelic mortality is evident in view of the judgment of death entered against the spirit son who became God’s Adversary, or Satan, and also against those other angels who followed that satanic course and “did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place.” (Jude 6; Mt 25:41; Re 20:10, 14) So the grant of “indestructible life” (Heb 7:16) or “indissoluble life” to those Christians who gain the privilege of reigning with God’s Son in the heavenly Kingdom marvelously demonstrates God’s confidence in them. Truthfinder |
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168 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80451 | ||
Hi all, I was wondering how everyone that reads this understands just what the original Greek word for hell in this verse means. Acts 2:31. (haides) Please do your research, back by scripture etc :). Then and only then can we understand what Acts 2:31 means. Truthfinder |
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169 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80452 | ||
Hi all, I was wondering how everyone that reads this understands just what the original Greek word for hell in this verse means. Acts 2:31. (haides) Please do your research, back by scripture etc :). Then and only then can we understand what Acts 2:31 means. Truthfinder |
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170 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80453 | ||
Hi all, I was wondering how everyone that reads this understands just what the original Greek word for hell in this verse means. Acts 2:31. (haides) Please do your research, back by scripture etc :). Then and only then can we understand what Acts 2:31 means. Truthfinder |
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171 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80454 | ||
Hi all, I was wondering how everyone that reads this understands just what the original Greek word for hell in this verse means. Acts 2:31. (haides) Please do your research, back by scripture etc :). Then and only then can we understand what Acts 2:31 means. Truthfinder |
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172 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80476 | ||
Thank you EdB, Do you understand Jesus' "story" of Luke 16 as literal? If so, why can we not accept it as a parable? My second question might be: what do you understand a dead soul to be? Truthfinder |
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173 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80507 | ||
Hi Joe, I have not dialogued with you before, welcome. Alright, good, so who go to this "real place",where is it,why do they go there, and you mentioned Matt. 25:46, for how long? Thank you Truthfinder |
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174 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80511 | ||
Hi CDBJ I am not interested in discussing the matter as of yet but did have a question. You quoted Lk 23:43, as "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." Why would a comma be placed after "thee," instead of after "Today" ? You notice you would have two completely different meanings if it were placed after "today". Very interesting and I thank you for your time and effort. Truthfinder |
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175 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80562 | ||
Hi Tim, That's interesting. It is also interesting that Syc (fifth cent. C.E.)the Syriac Peshitta (Sy), S. Lee, 1826 edition, reprinted by United Bible Societies, 1979 renders this text: "Amen, I say to thee to-day that with me thou shalt be in the Garden of Eden."-F. C. Burkitt, The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, Vol. I, Cambridge, 1904. Also note how Professor Wilhelm Michaelis renders the verse: "Truly, already today I give you the assurance: (one day) you will be together with me in paradise." Food for thought. Truthfinder |
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176 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80595 | ||
Tim, Actually, I feel the reasons for your argument irrelevant. Please don’t take that as ugly as it might sound, I know you know your Greek. On the other hand, I feel Jesus was speaking Hebrew and merely spoke a common Hebrew idiom such as at Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40. Additionally, I have compiled pages of research on this verse which proves to me that the comma should be placed after “shmeron”. Just one more example since I have the room here is that one of the best Greek texts, namely Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation, has the comma following the Greek “shmeron”. I wonder who was behind this textual difference in translation? Truthfinder |
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177 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93954 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Amen Emmaus. The "Church" has taught many non Bible based things. In the first century, the chief priests and other religious leaders persecuted Jesus’ followers. (John 19:15; Acts 5:27-33) As a result, it was said of Christianity: “Truly as regards this sect it is known to us that everywhere it is spoken against.” (Acts 28:22) It should not be surprising, therefore, that true Christianity today likewise is spoken of abusively. Yet, after examining evidence against early Christians, Gamaliel, the famous Pharisee and teacher of the Law, advised: “Do not meddle with these men, but let them alone; (because, if this scheme or this work is from men, it will be overthrown; but if it is from God, you will not be able to overthrow them;) otherwise, you may perhaps be found fighters actually against God.”—Acts 5:38, 39. Truthfinder |
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178 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93963 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Of course not? Why do you say that? You mention Paul as an early maryr? Yes, indeed. And: Antipas (Re 2:13) James (Ac 12:2) Justin Martyr. For refusing to worship pagan gods, second-century Christians were considered atheistic. “We are not atheists,” countered Justin, “worshipping as we do the Maker of the universe . . . Our teacher of these things is Jesus Christ . . . He is the Son of the true God.” Regarding idolatry, Justin said: “They make what they call a god; which we consider not only senseless, but to be even insulting to God . . . What infatuation! that dissolute men should be said to fashion and make gods for your worship.”—Isaiah 44:14-20. Polycarp. Polycarp’s oversight of the congregation began in the challenging years of the foretold apostasy. (2 Thessalonians 2:1-3) And of course, Stephen (Ac 6, 7) There is no doubt, that they all are in heaven, having been resurrected as was our Lord Jesus, even being given immortality. Yes, Emmaus I agree with you. But the "church" you speak of is not what these ones were a part of. They were part of the true "congregation" that Jesus set up. Truthfinder |
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179 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93974 | ||
Hi Emmaus, I posted just a day or so ago, the Bible's definition of death. Did you get to read it? Also, I showed what the soul is. "Adam came to be a living soul". Satan told Eve that they would not die. Yet, if one believes that the soul does not die, then Satan's assertion was correct. I showed the numerous scriptures that shows us the Bible indeed teaches that "man" who is himself a "soul" dies and awaits a resurrection. His spirit returns to God, until he (the dead) are resurrected. Animals too are souls but are not resurrected. I have a question for you. Do animals have a spirit? Truthfinder |
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180 | Here's what Jesus said before he died. | 1 Pet 3:19 | Truthfinder | 93986 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Please re-read my question. Do animals have a spirit (Heb.ruach Gr. pneuma)? There is a big difference between ruach and nephesh in the Hebrew and likewise between pneuma and psykhe in the Greek. Truthfinder |
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