Results 141 - 160 of 7096
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | Do babies go to Hell? Born w/ sin nature | Matt 18:3 | Makarios | 226173 | ||
Greetings DD4Truth, you are welcome! In my near 10 year history at this Forum, I have burned the midnight oil quite a few times over the years... I have learned that I have to quit posting when I am really tired or else I just cannot concentrate towards anyone's benefit. :) Blessings to you, Makarios | ||||||
142 | ...to another divers kinds of tongues | 1 Cor 12:10 | Makarios | 226135 | ||
Greetings Carol is Blessed! I interpret the phrase 'various kinds of tongues' (NASB) in 1 Cor. 12:10 to mean different languages or dialects. Now, if this means the supernatural ability to speak in unlearned human languages (as in Acts 2:4-11) or "heavenly" languages (1 Cor. 13:1; 14:2,10), then that is open for interpretation / discussion. But one thing is for certain: You don't have to speak in tongues in order to be sure of your salvation. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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143 | forgivness of sins | John 3:16 | Makarios | 226133 | ||
Greetings DD4Truth! Scripture clearly teaches that salvation is by faith alone, and water baptism is not necessary for salvation. John 3:16-17 presents a clear, excellent example: "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him." Now, in Acts 2:38, "Peter replied, 'Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins", the word 'for' is understood in a causal, or resultant, sense. Therefore, the verse could be paraphrased: "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ because of (or as a result of) the remission of sins." You don't get baptized in order to attain the remission of your sins, you get baptized following the salvation experience. In Mark 16:16, "Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned." Without delving into the textual criticism of whether or not this verse should actually be in the Bible (By the way, I agree with you that it should be there!), it is 'unbelief' that brings the condemnation, not a lack of being baptized. When a person rejects the gospel in a refusal to believe it, then that person is condemned to face judgment. Paul writes, "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel- not with words of human wisdom, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power" (1 Cor. 1:17). Here, Paul clearly draws a distinction between baptism and the gospel. And since it is the gospel that saves (1 Cor. 15:1-2), baptism is clearly not necessary to attain salvation. It is our faith in Christ that saves us (Acts 16:31; John 3:16), not baptism. Baptism is a public profession of faith that identifies us with Christ. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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144 | Do babies go to Hell? Born w/ sin nature | Matt 18:3 | Makarios | 226131 | ||
Greetings DD4Truth! You ask, "What sin is the newborn baby guilty of?" Answer: Nothing! "Also, is it the flesh of the baby that is gulity of the sin, the spirit of the baby that is guilty, or both?" Answer: None of the above! Please re-read my previous post. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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145 | Paul purification rite/Peter's rebuke | Gal 2:11 | Makarios | 226130 | ||
Greetings Dogloopy, You ask, "How is Paul's taking part in the purification rites any different than what Peter was doing (following Jewish traditions) when he condemned him in front of everyone?" Related Scripture: Galatians 2:11-21; Acts 21:15-26; 1 Cor. 9:22 In Galatians 2:11-21, Paul opposes Peter "to his face" at Antioch because he yielded to the pressure of the Judiazers in front of the Gentiles and other Jewish Christians, (like Barnabas) who were not associated with the Judiazers. Since the other Christians (both Jews and Gentile) followed Peter's example, then Peter led them astray by upholding the Judiazers, who contended that their 'purification rites', namely, circumcision and the observance of dietary restrictions, were necessary for salvation. In Acts 21:15-26, Paul comes before the council at Jerusalem before James and all of the elders, and is compelled by the council to sponsor and undergo purification with 4 other men who undertook a Nazirite vow, so that Paul could ensure that they complete their vows and purification, even in the wake of his preaching, which was misunderstood by these 4 Jewish men to mean that they should forsake what Moses commanded (verse 21). Such things like Nazirite vows were observed by choice among the Jewish Christians, but most definitely not something that was required of Christians. Perhaps the best way to understand these two situations (Galatians 2:11-21 and Acts 21:15-26) in the same light without seeing a contradiction is 1 Cor. 9:20-22, which says that Paul "became as a Jew" to win the Jews and became "all things to all men" so that salvation would be presented to all without obstacle, or Jewish rite thrown in as a hindrance. Paul had earlier underwent a Nazirite vow (Acts 18:18) and had Timothy be circumcised (Acts 16:3), even though he was very careful not to sacrifice Christian principle (unlike Peter in Galatians) in any act of obedience to the law (he would not have Titus circumcised - see Galatians 2:3). So, with the instance in Acts, it could be that Paul himself felt responsible for being a 'stumbling block' to those 4 Nazirites, even though he was correct! Paul submits to the council and does everything necessary to ensure that, although definitely not a necessity, the purification rites of the Nazirites are completed, and Paul's witness is held intact without any reservation. I hope that this answers your question! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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146 | Do babies go to Hell? Born w/ sin nature | Matt 18:3 | Makarios | 226123 | ||
Greetings Bell68! You ask, "Everyone is born into sin because of the original sin of first man. Therefore, do babies go to HELL when they die?" There are two questions/issues here: 1) concept of original sin, 2) do babies that die prematurely go to hell? The concept of original sin stems from the sin of Adam and Eve in Genesis 3, which affected the entire human race in such a way that every human being born since that sin has been born into a 'state of sin.' Scriptural support for this point of view is found in Romans 5:12,19; 1 Cor. 15:21,22; Psalm 51:5 and Ephesians 2:3. So, with this understanding, are babies and small children condemned to hell when they die? No. Even though all of us are lost (Luke 19:10), perishing (John 3:16), condemned (John 3:18), and under God's wrath (John 3:36) until we place our faith in Christ, the basis for judgment of the lost at the Great White Throne judgment in Revelation 20:11-15 is on the basis of "according to what they had done." The basis of the judgment of the wicked is clearly upon the deeds done while on earth. Therefore, since infants cannot possibly be responsible for their deeds, then they would fall under the "riches of God's grace" which shows "wisdom and understanding" (Ephesians 1:7,8). With such verses as Matthew 18:3,5 and especially 2 Samuel 12:22,23 when David fully expected to be reunited with his dying infant son, then we have more than enough of a Biblical basis to believe that Scripture teaches that babies and young children go to heaven at the moment of death. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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147 | Explain Mark 9:7 | Mark 9:7 | Makarios | 226098 | ||
Greetings Dr. Hawk, Mark 9:7 "Then a cloud formed, overshadowing them, and a voice came out of the cloud, "This is My beloved Son, listen to Him!" Here is a bit of commentary that might help: "..Mark tells us that the garments of Jesus became radiant. The word he uses (stilbein) is the word which is used for the glistening gleam of burnished brass or gold, or of polished steel, or of the golden glare of the sunlight. When the incident came to an end a cloud overshadowed them. In Jewish thought the presence of God is regularly connected with the cloud. It was in the cloud that Moses met God. It was in the cloud that God came to Tabernacle. It was the cloud which filled the Temple when it was dedicated after Solomon had built it. And it was the dream of the Jews that when the Messiah came the cloud of God's presence would return to the Temple. (Exodus 16:10, 19:9, 33:9; 1 Kings 8:10)" ... "The descent of the cloud is a way of saying that the Messiah had come, and any Jew would understand it like that." (1) Source: (1) pgs. 215-216, The Gospel of Mark, January 1956 by William Barclay, The Westminster Press Blessings to you, Makarios |
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148 | what book of bible was written first | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226096 | ||
Greetings Assata, You stated, "what was the first book actually written. although genesis is first in the bible it's was not the first written." Do you have any substantial proof that would support the notion that Genesis was not actually written first? The Book of Job could be a contender, but even Job contains clues (see 1:15,17) that could make it later than Genesis. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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149 | Did God the Father create Jesus | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226094 | ||
Greetings DD4Truth, Good questions! 1) 1 Cor. 11:3 - Just in what sense is God the "head" of Christ? Actually, this verse has absolutely nothing to do with inferiority or superiority of one person over another; rather, it has to do with patterns of authority. Example: If husband and wife are both created in God's image (Gen. 1:26-28) and said to be "one" in Christ (Gal. 3:28), then husband and wife can be completely equal in terms of their nature, but assume different places in a functional hierarchy (1 Cor. 11:3). In the same way, the Father and Son are equal in their divine being (Jesus said "I and the Father are one" - John 10:30), even though Jesus is functionally under the Father's headship (1 Cor. 11:3). 2) 1 Cor. 15:24-28 - The Son will be made subject to the Father in the sense that God the Father is the administrative Head (see answer to #1 above). This verse does not suggest that the Son is in any way inferior to the Father. All three persons of the Trinity are equal in deity. 3) Matt. 12:32 - Basically, whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven and the person is guilty of a sin that not even eternity can wipe out. If we are to understand what this means we must first understand the circumstances in which it was said. It was said by Jesus when the Scribes and Pharisees had declared that the cures He wrought were not from God's power, but from the power of the devil. Now, the Holy Spirit reveals God's Truth (2 Peter 1:21) and enables men to recognize the Truth (John 14:26). If a person believes in Christ, so long as he hates his sin even if he cannot leave it completely, even in the mud and the filth, he or she can still be forgiven. It is only when a person has a hardness of heart in such a way that the calling of Christ means absolutely nothing to them; they have shut themselves out forever from the love of God - then, even the Resurrection of Christ is unable to move their heart. This is the sin against the Holy Spirit that cannot be forgiven. So, those who say that Christ did miracles from the power of the devil rather than the power of God - it is of this very same hardness of heart that can blind a man to look at the incarnate love of God and think that it was the 'incarnate' power of Satan. In conclusion, in no way is the Son or the Holy Spirit inferior to God the Father in deity. All three persons of the Trinity are equal in deity, but assume different functions within a functional hierarchy (1 Cor. 11:3). I hope this helps! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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150 | Does God hate the devil? | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226091 | ||
Greetings JKCOOK, You ask, "Does God hate the devil?" Scripture clearly states that God created all things, including the angels (Genesis 1:1; 2:1). Now, if God did not originally create Satan (or the devil) as an evil being, but he became that way due to disobedience, like mankind, then does that mean that God hates the devil? I believe that God, who does not desire that anyone should perish, offers a 'no-strings attached' invitation to all who would place their faith in Him, and those who place their faith in Him will be saved. I don't believe that God "hates" those who will perish in their sins or even the Adversary himself (the devil), but He will judge them for their deeds (as well as Satan - Rev. 20:10). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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151 | how can I meet God halfway? | Prov 3:5 | Makarios | 226087 | ||
Greetings LostCowgirl33, You ask, "How can I meet God halfway?" Proverbs 3:5-6 "Trust in the LORD with all your heart And do not lean on your own understanding. In all your ways acknowledge Him, And He will make your paths straight." If you keep your focus on Christ, and He is the most important part of your life, then everything else will fall in line behind the Savior as He will give you your 'marching orders' from now on, since you are now a child of God. From now on, what He wants in your life will become your dreams and goals for the future, which He has already laid out for you (Jeremiah 29:11). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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152 | Pauls fellow persecutors post-conversion | Acts 22:11 | Makarios | 226084 | ||
Greetings Dogloopy, You ask, "What do you think happened to Paul's fellow zealous/Jewish traveling companions after his conversion?" Acts 9:8 and 22:11 say that they led Saul (Paul) by the hand into Damascus and eventually to the house of Judas on Straight Street (9:11). But those who were with him "did not understand" (22:9) even though they heard the voice (9:7; see also Dan. 10:7) and saw no one. In both accounts - Chapters 9 and 22 - the disciple Ananias picks up the story from there and what happened to Saul's traveling companions is anyone's guess. Perhaps they continued on with Saul to witness his miraculous conversion and healing, being converted themselves. Perhaps they continued and tried to thwart the efforts of the disciples. Perhaps they went back to the Synagogue in Jerusalem to report what happened, or went to the local Synagogue in Damascus, only to witness their compatriot do a complete 180 and start preaching about Jesus immediately! (9:20) Whatever the case, Scripture does not say one way or the other. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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153 | Are Abraham and Sarah kin?? | Gen 20:12 | Makarios | 226079 | ||
Greetings Getting2KnowGod, Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com! Yes, Abraham and Sarah's kinship is explained in Genesis 20:12-13. We are told later in Leviticus 18:6-18 that such a close kinship is indeed a sin (incest). But since the time of Noah all the way up to Abraham, the people of the earth had to multiply and disperse, and this meant that they really had to marry close kin at times in order to fulfill God's directive of "go and multiply" (Genesis 9:7). But after the nation of Israel is well established and delivered from Egypt, God makes it clear that such a close kinship in a marriage relationship should no longer be pursued and should be considered as sin from that point forward. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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154 | Scripture dealing with depression | Jeremiah | Makarios | 226020 | ||
Greetings Puppytoes! You ask, "Is there any scripture for dealing with depression?" Yes! We all sin and make mistakes - even the righteous - see Ecclesiastes 7:20. But God comforts the depressed - the Bible even says so - "But God, who comforts the depressed, comforted us by the coming of Titus;" (2 Corinthians 7:6, NASB). "He sent from on high, He took me; He drew me out of many waters." (2 Sam. 22:17) Psalm 34:18 "The LORD is near to the brokenhearted and saves those who are crushed in spirit." And if we hope against hope, like Abraham (Romans 4:18-22), we will grow strong in our faith, giving glory to God. And no matter what you did, God loves you and will forgive you - "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." (1 John 1:9) Prayer and leading a Godly example will help repair many relationships. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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155 | Did God the Father create Jesus | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 226005 | ||
Greetings jonathandunlap30@gmail.com, "Does the fact that Jesus said no one knows the day or hour of His return except the Father mean that He is less than God Almighty (Mark 13:32)?" "No. But explaining this issue requires a little theological background. Though a bit complex, the eternal Son of God was, prior to the Incarnation, one in person and nature (wholly divine). In the Incarnation, He bacame two in nature (divine and human) while remaining one person. "Thus Christ at the same moment in time had what seem to be contradictory qualities. He was finite and yet infinite, weak and yet omnipotent, increasing in knowledge and yet omniscient, limited to being in one place at one time and yet omnipresent. It was only from His humanity that Christ could say that He didn't know the day or hour of His return. In His humanity, Jesus was not omniscient but was limited in understanding jsut as all human beings are. If Jesus had been speaking from the perspective of His divinity, He wouldn't have said the same thing. "Scripture is abundantly clear that in His divine nature, Jesus is omniscient- just as omniscient as the Father is. The apostle John said that Jesus "did not need man's testimony about man, for he knew what was in a man" (John 2:25). Jesus' disciples said, "Now we can see that you know all things" (16:30). After the Resurrection, when Jesus asked Peter for the third time if Peter loved Him, Peter responded: "Lord, you know all things; you know that I love you" (21:17). Jesus knew just where the fish were in the water (Luke 5:4-6; John 21:6-11), and He knew just which fish contained the coin (Matthew 17:27). He knows the Father as the Father knows Him (Matthew 11:27; John 7:29; 8:55; 10:15; 17:25)." (1) So, Christ in His deity is omniscient. It is only from the perspective of His humanity that He did not know the time of the Second Coming. Source: (1) pg. 94, The Complete Book of Bible Answers, 1997 by Ron Rhodes, Harvest House Publishers Blessings to you, Makarios |
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156 | Caleb from the tribe of Judah? | Num 13:6 | Makarios | 225965 | ||
Greetings Doc, This is definitely a constructive additional insight to this passage about Joshua and Caleb and the rest of the Israelites at Mt. Sinai. Thank you for your very thoughtful answer! It also makes me wonder what other Rabbinical teachings there are that would shed some light on otherwise rather obscure meanings or passages in Scripture. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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157 | Book on Hebrew Language | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225964 | ||
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158 | I am asking for both,Latin ,English . | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225962 | ||
Greetings Brad! According to http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/nbi/273.html: "How did the Bible become separated into chapters and verses? "When the books of the Bible were originally written there were no such things as chapters or verses. Each book was written without any breaks from the beginning to the end. "They Have Been Divided For Convenience "The chapter and verse divisions were added to the Bible for the sake of convenience. There is no authoritative basis for the divisions we now find. "The Chapters Added In The Thirteenth Century A man named Stephen Langton divided the Bible into chapters in the year A.D. 1227. Langton was a professor at the University of Paris and later he became the Archbishop of Canterbury. "The Verses Were Added In The Sixteenth Century Robert Stephanus (Stephens), a French printer, divided the verses for his Greek New Testament. It was published in 1551. "The First Bible With Chapter And Verse Divisions The first entire Bible in which these chapter and verse divisions were used was Stephen’s edition of the Latin Vulgate (1555). The first English New Testament to have both chapter and verse divisions was the Geneva Bible (1560). "Fortunately Jewish scholars have followed the way of dividing the Hebrew Scripture into chapters and verses. ... "This Is Not What the Authors Intended "The original authors of Scripture did not intend that their writings be divided up into chapters or verses. They intended that the books be read straight through from the beginning. A number of the books of Scripture can be read through in one sitting. This is the best way to discover what the author is trying to say. Dividing up the Scripture into chapters and verses encourages people to read only small parts at a time. This is not always helpful. "Summary "In the original text of the various books of the Bible there are no such things as chapter and verse divisions. They were added later for the sake of convenience. While they are helpful, they are not authoritative in any sense of the term. In fact, they can cause a number of problems. Chapter and verse divisions give the impression that the Scripture should be read and studied in bits and pieces. This is not what the original authors intended. The entire context must always be considered. Consequently the chapter and verse divisions should be ignored when one attempts to properly interpret the entire message of Scripture." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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159 | Book on Hebrew Language | Not Specified | Makarios | 225930 | ||
There is a great book on the Hebrew language called "IN HIS OWN WORDS." Are there any reactions to this book? | ||||||
160 | Book on Hebrew Language | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225963 | ||
There is a great book on the Hebrew language called "IN HIS OWN WORDS." Are there any reactions to this book? | ||||||
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