Results 141 - 160 of 3133
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | how can I meet God halfway? | Prov 3:5 | Makarios | 226087 | ||
Greetings LostCowgirl33, You ask, "How can I meet God halfway?" Proverbs 3:5-6 "Trust in the LORD with all your heart And do not lean on your own understanding. In all your ways acknowledge Him, And He will make your paths straight." If you keep your focus on Christ, and He is the most important part of your life, then everything else will fall in line behind the Savior as He will give you your 'marching orders' from now on, since you are now a child of God. From now on, what He wants in your life will become your dreams and goals for the future, which He has already laid out for you (Jeremiah 29:11). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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142 | Pauls fellow persecutors post-conversion | Acts 22:11 | Makarios | 226084 | ||
Greetings Dogloopy, You ask, "What do you think happened to Paul's fellow zealous/Jewish traveling companions after his conversion?" Acts 9:8 and 22:11 say that they led Saul (Paul) by the hand into Damascus and eventually to the house of Judas on Straight Street (9:11). But those who were with him "did not understand" (22:9) even though they heard the voice (9:7; see also Dan. 10:7) and saw no one. In both accounts - Chapters 9 and 22 - the disciple Ananias picks up the story from there and what happened to Saul's traveling companions is anyone's guess. Perhaps they continued on with Saul to witness his miraculous conversion and healing, being converted themselves. Perhaps they continued and tried to thwart the efforts of the disciples. Perhaps they went back to the Synagogue in Jerusalem to report what happened, or went to the local Synagogue in Damascus, only to witness their compatriot do a complete 180 and start preaching about Jesus immediately! (9:20) Whatever the case, Scripture does not say one way or the other. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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143 | Are Abraham and Sarah kin?? | Gen 20:12 | Makarios | 226079 | ||
Greetings Getting2KnowGod, Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com! Yes, Abraham and Sarah's kinship is explained in Genesis 20:12-13. We are told later in Leviticus 18:6-18 that such a close kinship is indeed a sin (incest). But since the time of Noah all the way up to Abraham, the people of the earth had to multiply and disperse, and this meant that they really had to marry close kin at times in order to fulfill God's directive of "go and multiply" (Genesis 9:7). But after the nation of Israel is well established and delivered from Egypt, God makes it clear that such a close kinship in a marriage relationship should no longer be pursued and should be considered as sin from that point forward. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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144 | Scripture dealing with depression | Jeremiah | Makarios | 226020 | ||
Greetings Puppytoes! You ask, "Is there any scripture for dealing with depression?" Yes! We all sin and make mistakes - even the righteous - see Ecclesiastes 7:20. But God comforts the depressed - the Bible even says so - "But God, who comforts the depressed, comforted us by the coming of Titus;" (2 Corinthians 7:6, NASB). "He sent from on high, He took me; He drew me out of many waters." (2 Sam. 22:17) Psalm 34:18 "The LORD is near to the brokenhearted and saves those who are crushed in spirit." And if we hope against hope, like Abraham (Romans 4:18-22), we will grow strong in our faith, giving glory to God. And no matter what you did, God loves you and will forgive you - "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." (1 John 1:9) Prayer and leading a Godly example will help repair many relationships. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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145 | Book on Hebrew Language | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225964 | ||
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146 | I am asking for both,Latin ,English . | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225962 | ||
Greetings Brad! According to http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/nbi/273.html: "How did the Bible become separated into chapters and verses? "When the books of the Bible were originally written there were no such things as chapters or verses. Each book was written without any breaks from the beginning to the end. "They Have Been Divided For Convenience "The chapter and verse divisions were added to the Bible for the sake of convenience. There is no authoritative basis for the divisions we now find. "The Chapters Added In The Thirteenth Century A man named Stephen Langton divided the Bible into chapters in the year A.D. 1227. Langton was a professor at the University of Paris and later he became the Archbishop of Canterbury. "The Verses Were Added In The Sixteenth Century Robert Stephanus (Stephens), a French printer, divided the verses for his Greek New Testament. It was published in 1551. "The First Bible With Chapter And Verse Divisions The first entire Bible in which these chapter and verse divisions were used was Stephen’s edition of the Latin Vulgate (1555). The first English New Testament to have both chapter and verse divisions was the Geneva Bible (1560). "Fortunately Jewish scholars have followed the way of dividing the Hebrew Scripture into chapters and verses. ... "This Is Not What the Authors Intended "The original authors of Scripture did not intend that their writings be divided up into chapters or verses. They intended that the books be read straight through from the beginning. A number of the books of Scripture can be read through in one sitting. This is the best way to discover what the author is trying to say. Dividing up the Scripture into chapters and verses encourages people to read only small parts at a time. This is not always helpful. "Summary "In the original text of the various books of the Bible there are no such things as chapter and verse divisions. They were added later for the sake of convenience. While they are helpful, they are not authoritative in any sense of the term. In fact, they can cause a number of problems. Chapter and verse divisions give the impression that the Scripture should be read and studied in bits and pieces. This is not what the original authors intended. The entire context must always be considered. Consequently the chapter and verse divisions should be ignored when one attempts to properly interpret the entire message of Scripture." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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147 | spousal financial responsability | Prov 31:27 | Makarios | 225878 | ||
Greetings Terry, The wife described in Proverbs 31 was one who worked (verse 19) but looked towards the needs of her household (verse 27) while fearing the Lord (verse 30). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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148 | why are the twelve tribes of isreal diff | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225845 | ||
Greetings Phil2011! Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com. The sons of Jacob (Israel) that are mentioned in Genesis 48:3-28 are: Reuben, Simeon, and the two sons of Joseph who are Jacob's (see verse 5): Ephraim and Manasseh. A complete picture of the twelve tribes of Israel are in Chapter 49. The major difference between the list of the twelve tribes in Genesis 49 and the list in Revelation 7:4-8 is that the tribe of Dan is omitted in Revelation and the two Joseph tribes are mentioned separately (and together in Genesis 49). Here is a note on that: (Revelation) "7:6 Manasseh. One of the two Joseph tribes (Ephraim and Manasseh), yet mentioned separately, probably to make up 12 tribes since Dan is omitted. This omission is due perhaps to Dan's early connection with idolatry (Judg 18:30), or to a tradition that the antichrist was to come from that tribe." (pg. 1857, Zondervan NASB Study Bible, 1999 Zondervan Corp) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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149 | Jews and Gentiles, help!! | Rom 10:12 | Makarios | 225815 | ||
Greetings Wick08, You ask, "I have been in a study recently of Romans 2. I have came to understanding that the uncircumcised (Gentiles) are of more value because they have circumcised hearts. My question is "Is a Gentile that is circumcised at heart at equal standings with a person in Jewish decent that is circumcised at heart in the eyes of God?" Answer: Yes! Romans 10:12 "For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;" 1 Cor. 1:24 "but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God." 1 Cor. 12:13 "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit." Galatians 3:28 "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus." Colossians 3:11 "a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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150 | I would like to know what was the origin | Luke 2:33 | Makarios | 225813 | ||
Greetings Ramon! Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com. Scripure makes explicitly clear that Joseph is only the legal father of Jesus (Matthew 1:1-16; Luke 1:27; 2:21-24), and that Jesus was truly conceived by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 1:18,20-25; Luke 1:35). As far as the word "father" in Luke 2:33, the Greek word is 'pater' (Strongs G3962), meaning "father, parent." According to www.blueletterbible.org, the Greek word 'pater' appears 419 times in the King James Version: rendered as "Father" 268 times in the KJV and "father" 150 times. Some sample passages for each: 'father' - Matthew 2:22; Luke 1:73; 'Father' - Matthew 5:45; 6:6; Luke 2:49. But the question as far as if the Greek actually has the word 'pater' (as it appears in the NASB) or the Greek word 'Ioseph' ("Joseph" - Strongs G2501), is truly a question of differing Biblical manuscripts, as pointed out by the notes in The NET Bible (http://net.bible.org/bible.php): "[3] tc Most mss" ... "read "Joseph," but in favor of the reading" ... "(Jo pathr autou, "his father") is both external" ... "and internal evidence. Internally, the fact that Mary is not named at this point and that "Joseph" is an obviously motivated reading, intended to prevent confusion over the virgin conception of Christ, argues strongly for" (pater) "as the authentic reading here. See also the tc note on "parents" in 2:43." Therefore, the NASB translators, along with the NIV, NET Bible, NRSV, HCSB, ESV, Douay-Rheims (1582), The Amplified Bible, New American Bible, ASV (1901), ISV, 1889 Darby Bible, 1912 Weymouth, and the Latin Vulgate all agree with 'pater' as the correct manuscript preference of translation. It is my belief that such a choice would not in any way diminish the NASB's esteem as the most literal translation on the market today. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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151 | Why did Jesus die for your sins ? | Rom 5:8 | Makarios | 225811 | ||
Greetings Debbie, Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com! You asked, "Why did Jesus die for your sins?" Jesus died for our sins because He loves us! Romans 5:8 "But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." John 3:16-17 "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him." Please let us know if you have any further questions. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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152 | did moses stutter | Ex 4:10 | Makarios | 225731 | ||
Greetings Divadoll! You ask, "what did moses mean when he said he could not speak to the people. did he stutter?" Related Scripture: Exodus 4:10; 6:12,30; Jeremiah 1:4-10; Acts 7:22; 2 Corinthians 10:10 Exodus 4:10 "Then Moses said to the LORD, "O my Lord, I am not an eloquent man, neither in the past nor since you have spoken to your servant, for I am slow of speech and slow of tongue." This is actually Moses' fourth expression of reluctance (see Ex. 3:11,13; 4:1,13 for the other four). Moses did not have any kind of speech impediment (see Acts 7:22), but he was concerned that he wasn't quite equipped to verbally debate with the likes of Pharaoh's court, who prided themselves on their persuasiveness of speech. Paul was also described as being 'contemptible of speech' (2 Cor. 10:10) and Jeremiah expressed similar concerns also when he was called by God (see Jeremiah 1:4-10). "Then the LORD put out his hand and touched my mouth. And the LORD said to me, "Behold, I have put my words in your mouth." (Jeremiah 1:9) With the very words of God, neither Jeremiah nor Moses could go wrong in fulfilling God's mission with His very words, which do not return to Him empty! (Isaiah 55:11) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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153 | Forcing his way into the Kingdom | Luke 16:16 | Makarios | 225729 | ||
Greetings 00123, You ask, "What is the exact meaning of "forcing his way into it" (the Kingdom)?" Luke 16:16 "The Law and the Prophets were until John; since then the good news of the kingdom of God is preached, and everyone forces his way into it." (ESV) In Jesus' day, there were hundreds of revolutionaries willing to use great violence to usher in the kingdom of God. While we do not imitate their violence, we do imitate their dedication, their willingness to sacrifice, and their passion to see the Messiah come to reign. We are at war! But the new order that we must press into is not an order of rebellion; it is a new order of submission and obedience to God. His new order fulfills the law. Here's a good commentary: "16:16 ...'Everyone forces his way into it' is a puzzling and much debated statement. Greek biazo means "to use force," but the verb form here (biazetai) could be either in the middle voice ("everyone is using force" to enter into it) or in the passive voice ("everyone is being forced or forcefully urged" to enter into it). The meaning in the ESV text, "everyone forces his way into it," is possible grammatically and fits the meaning of the same verb when used in Matt. 11:12. By this interpretation, the verse suggests that exercising the faith that brings one into the kingdom and keeps one there involves a kind of holy "violence" toward oneself in the form of repentance and self-denial. Some interpreters object, however, that this view does not fit well in the context, for not everyone is forcing their way into the kingdom and in fact many are rejecting it. In addition, there is arguably some tension between forcing one's way into the kingdom and the emphasis throughout the Gospels on entering the kingdom of God by faith. These interpreters have favored the meaning in the ESV footnote, "everyone is forcefully urged into it." The verb takes that sense elsewhere (see Gen. 33:11; 2 Sam. 13:25,27; parabiazomai has this meaning in Luke 24:29; Acts 16:15). This is similar to the idea of Luke 14:23 (see note on 14:21-24). On this view, the meaning of biazo would be different from its sense in Matt. 11:12, but the verses appear in different contexts and the meaning may be different as well (cf. note on Matt. 11:12)." (1) Blessings to you, Makarios (1) pg. 1991, The ESV Study Bible, 2008 by Crossway Bibles |
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154 | Who Had Paul boasted about to Titus and | 2 Cor 7:13 | Makarios | 225728 | ||
Greetings Chrisie, You ask, "Who Had Paul boasted about to Titus and was not disappointed in them?" 2 Corinthians 7:13-16 "By all this we are encouraged. "In addition to our own encouragement, we were especially delighted to see how happy Titus was, because his spirit has been refreshed by all of you. I had boasted to him about you, and you have not embarrassed me. But just as everything we said to you was true, so our boasting about you to Titus has proved to be true as well. And his affection for you is all the greater when he remembers that you were all obedient, receiving him with fear and trembling. I am glad I can have complete confidence in you." (NIV - 1984) So, according to verse 14, Paul is boasting to Titus about the faith of the Corinthians, who he could have "complete confidence" in (verse 16). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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155 | What makes a tithe a tithe? | Matt 23:23 | Makarios | 225667 | ||
Greetings Willownanny, This is largely a repost of #225573.. "Can a tithe to anyone outside of God and the church still be considered a tithe?" Scripture gives an example in Genesis 47:24-26 when the Israelites gave a one-fifth tithe to Pharaoh (and not to God). But most of the Biblical examples describe a tithe as giving to the LORD (Numbers 18:26). Scripture also indicates that it is not so important as to where the tithe goes (Deut. 14:22-23), but the condition of our hearts as we tithe: see Isaiah 1:13-19, Matthew 23:23, Mark 12:42, 1 Chronices 29:9, 2 Cor. 9:6-7. Therefore, the condition of our heart as we tithe is more important than where we actually contribute the tithe. But tithing to our fellow church brethren is shown in Scripture to be important (Acts 11:29; Romans 15:26; 2 Cor. 9:13). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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156 | what does Ecclesiates 5:1-7 mean | Eccl 5:1 | Makarios | 225589 | ||
Greetings SDH, What does Ecclesiastes 5:1-7 mean? Here is a bit of commentary on these verses: "5:1-7 Fear God, the Holy and Righteous One. The previous exhortation to "fear God" was motivated by God's sovereignty (3:9-15); in this section, it is motivated by his holy and righteous character." (1) "5:4 When you vow a vow to God. The Preacher wishes to keep people from uttering rash or meaningless words during the worship of God (vv. 1-2), and in particular he has in mind the careless taking of a religious vow as an act of piety (cf. Deut. 23:21-23). By taking a vow, a worshiper would promise to perform a specific act (such as making a sacrifice) if God would respond favorably to a particular petition (Gen. 28:20-22; Judg. 11:30-31; 1 Sam. 1:11). Since making a sacrifice was costly, however, people often looked for some excuse to avoid following through with it (e.g., Eccles. 5:6)." (1) "5:1 Walk prudently: Literally, this phrase is "guard your feet" when you go to worship God. It means to behave yourself. The idea of righteous behavior is rephrased at the end of the section in the words: "But fear God" (5:7). to hear: As is common in the prophets, there is a warning to be circumspect about sacrifice. God has no pleasure in those who do all the right things for all the wrong reasons (Is. 1:10-15). the sacrifice of fools: As the prophet Samuel warned Saul, "Behold, to obey is better than sacrifice, and to heed than the fat of rams" (1 Sam. 15:22)." (2) I hope that this helps! Blessings to you, Makarios Sources: (1) pg. 1202, ESV Study Bible, 2008 Crossway Bibles (2) pgs. 1016, 1017, NKJV Study Bible, 2007 Thomas Nelson, Inc. |
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157 | tithe to prison | Bible general Archive 4 | Makarios | 225573 | ||
Greetings Legsrandall, You ask, "can I give my tithe to a person in prison?" This question brings up another question: Can a tithe to anyone outside of God and the church still be considered a tithe? Scripture gives an example in Genesis 47:24-26 when the Israelites gave one-fifth to Pharaoh. But most of the Biblical examples describe a tithe as giving to the LORD (Numbers 18:26). Therefore, it is not so important as to where the tithe goes (Deut. 14:22-23), but the condition of our hearts as we tithe: see Isaiah 1:13-19, Matthew 23:23, Mark 12:42, 1 Chronices 29:9, 2 Cor. 9:6-7. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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158 | Have Angels had relations with humans? | Heb 13:2 | Makarios | 225563 | ||
Greetings Izzy! You ask, "Have Angels ever mixed in the real world with humans?" Answer: Yes! Hebrews 13:2 "Do not neglect to show hospitality to strangers, for by this some have entertained angels without knowing it." Blessings to you, Makarios |
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159 | verse of proof that Jesus is God | John 1:1 | Makarios | 225532 | ||
Greetings GodChild59! Verses that show that Jesus is God? Check these out: Psalm 102:24-27; 110:1; Isaiah 7:14; 8:13-14; 9:6; 40:3; Daniel 7:13-14; Micah 5:2; Matthew 1:23; 3:3; 11:19; 12:8; 22:42-45; 26:63-67; Mark 1:1; 15:39; John 1:1,14,18; 3:16,18; 5:18; 20:28; Acts 3:14; 10:36; 20:28; Romans 9:5; 10:12; 1 Cor. 1:9; 2 Cor. 1:19; Galatians 2:20; Ephesians 4:13; Philippians 2:5-6; Colossians 1:15-17; 2:9; 1 Timothy 3:16; Titus 2:13; Hebrews 1:2,8; 1:10-13; 1 Peter 2:8; 2 Peter 1:1,17; 1 John 1:1-3; 3:23; 4:9; 5:10,12-13,20-21; Rev. 1:8,11,17; 17:14; 21:22; 22:13 Please also see a great post on the subject by Morant61: #216609. (Just enter 216609 in the Search box in the upper right corner) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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160 | who has the authority to baptize | Acts 10:48 | Makarios | 225524 | ||
Greetings Falcon, You ask, "Who has the authority to baptize and where can it be found in scripture?" There are a few verses that lead me to believe that baptism can be performed by any believer with someone who has been called to be baptized: Matthew 28:19, Mark 1:4, Acts 10:48, Acts 8:36, Gal. 3:26-27. Matthew 28:19-20 - these verses, commonly referred to as "the Great Commission", is a general call by Jesus, who had "all authority" in heaven and on earth, to commission all who would follow Him to baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Therefore, the Great Commission itself is a general declaration to all believers that they have been given authority (and even commanded) to make disciples and baptize in His name. Mark 1:4 "John the Baptizer arose in the wilderness, proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins." - What credentials did John have before he started baptizing? He was simply filled with the Holy Spirit, and he began proclaiming the word and baptizing all who confessed their sins in repentance. Acts 10:48 - Peter commands that the Gentiles be baptized in the name of the Lord. So, the picture here is that Peter the apostle hands the actual duty of performing the baptism to either a deacon (Acts 6:5) or just a fellow believer who was with them. Acts 8:36 - one of the deacons mentioned in Acts 6:5, Philip, performs a baptism for the Ethiopian, who just converted to the faith after Philip preached the message of Jesus to him. He says, "See, here is water. What hinders me from being baptized?" Philip only responds by saying "If you believe with all your heart, you may." Therefore, if there is any requirement needed for baptism, it is not the one who is actually performing the baptism who needs to be 'fit', but the one who is being baptized who must be a true believer in Christ. Galatians 3:26-27 - "for as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ" - so, if the end result is that we "have put on Christ", then it really should not matter as far as who is performing the baptizing. It is telling that this verse immediately follows "for you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus." I hope that this helps! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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