Results 121 - 140 of 268
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Results from: Notes Author: Reighnskye Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131176 | ||
Doc, How might one assess what is indeed over-spiritualization? My proposal is that we as mortals are not spiritual enough in our biblical interpretations. I would be greatly hesitant to reduce the greater spirituality of scripture down to a basis of mere speculation. Indeed, the Bible offers us a plethora of earthly applications for our personal lives. But the moment that we may potentially separate these earthly applications from an enlightened spiritual vision, such applications therefore tend to revert to empty and vain religiosity. Even as any supposed spirituality, in the absence of earthly application, will only be revealed to be a psuedo-spirituality in the end. I would be very careful here to differentiate between spirituality and speculation, as the two are commonly mistaken for each the other. Speculation has it's place, but ideally under the greater context of direct spiritual revelation. As far as authority goes when rendering biblical interpretations, I am aware of no other source than the Holy Spirit. Even many of the later church fathers and theologians (after the apostles died out) were not fully adequate in my view to interpret the scriptures for us. Their own doctrinal schisms against one another seems to confirm this to me. Blessings, Reighnskye |
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122 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131194 | ||
Doc, I clearly see now what you mean by over-spiritualization. Thank you for the illustrations contained in these specific examples. I probably might use a different term myself, but it's probably not best for me to get weighed down in excessive semantics anyway. ---- When Jesus then saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He *said to His mother, "Woman, behold, your son!" Then He *said to the disciple, "Behold, your mother!" From that hour the disciple took her into his own household. (John 19:26-27 NAS95) I would interpret the scripture unit that you cite as still possessing a vastly spiritual dimension and meaning. This is notwithstanding it's practical application of the inherent spirituality conveyed therein. For example, although I wouldn't desire to project either of these two misinterpretations that you mention upon this text, I would still have to say that this scripture unit (like any other) has an inherent spiritual lesson for each one of us. The spiritual lesson in this particular unit might be in regards to the spiritual family which we have in the church, wherein Mary and John take care of each other, despite their lack of immediate familial relations in the flesh. In other words, spiritually speaking, we are all one family. It is my premise that no verse of scripture lacks a spiritual origination and dimension to it. Nor should practical application be omitted either. Of course, any and all scriptures could be over-interpreted and/or under-interpreted as to their precise meanings, whether spiritually or practically. I suggest that the spiritual meaning of this verse is contained here. ---- While He was still speaking to the crowds, behold, His mother and brothers were standing outside, seeking to speak to Him. Someone said to Him, "Behold, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside seeking to speak to You." But Jesus answered the one who was telling Him and said, "Who is My mother and who are My brothers?" And stretching out His hand toward His disciples, He said, "Behold My mother and My brothers! "For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother and sister and mother." (Matthew 12:46-50 NAS95) ---- Further, you reference the interpretive authority basis used by the Protestants and the Catholics. What alternate authority might you suggest as being valid, that we may more directly rely on? Reighnskye |
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123 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131309 | ||
Doc, In what way has God raised his Word above his Name? I've heard this said before by people, but the doctrine never really made sense to me. The NASB and the KJV each render the verse very differently, insofar as the NASB seems to intimate that God's Word is an equivalent expression of God's Name. Is one of the translations incorrect? I've not noticed this doctrine to appear anywhere else in scripture. ---- I will bow down toward Your holy temple And give thanks to Your name for Your lovingkindness and Your truth; For You have magnified Your word according to all Your name. (Psalms 138:2 NAS95) I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name. (Psalms 138:2 KJV) ---- As far as semantics, I tend to agree with you. These are extremely important. Much heresy and apostasy has originated from redefinitions of basic words. I've encountered an obstacle with a friend of mine in the past however. He would often tend to break words down into their root origins, even quoting his hebrew/greek lexicon, but it seemed as if he had canonized his lexicons beyond the canonization of scripture itself. I tried to point out to him that even his greek/hebrew lexicons were man-made, and therefore fallible. Indeed, no mortal language is perfect that it could possibly produce an inerrent written text. - Reighnskye |
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124 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131310 | ||
Doc, I'm attempting to understand your illustration of semantics here. You mention that part of becoming a Christian involves taking up a new language. I'm wondering what exact language that you may be referring to? What are some of it's core terminologies, for example? I'd hate to think that a person would not likely be successful as a Christian if she/he had to be formally educated in terminologies that would often require seminary training. - Reighnskye |
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125 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131381 | ||
Doc, Here are some excerpts from THE CHICAGO STATEMENT ON BIBLICAL INERRANCY with my own inquisitive interjections regarding these portions. In other words, I would like to learn more on the subject. - "Article I We affirm that the Holy Scriptures are to be received as the authoritative Word of God. We deny that the Scriptures receive their authority from the Church, tradition, or any other human source." (I personally surmise that the authority of the ancient Church plays a vital authoritative role here, as slightly similar to the Catholic doctrines, although I do not place that same faith in the authority of our modern day church. I surmise that God is higher than the original authors of scripture and that the original authors of scripture are higher than the scriptures themselves.) - "Article IV We affirm that God who made mankind in His image has used language as a means of revelation. We deny that human language is so limited by our creatureliness that it is rendered inadequate as a vehicle for divine revelation. We further deny that the corruption of human culture and language through sin has thwarted God's work of inspiration." (I surmise that human languages such as hebrew/greek, english/spanish are imperfect in their conveyance of divine revelation, and therefor fail to innerantly express the totality of divine truth. However, in contrast, I also surmise that the original revelations imparted to the authors of scripture originate from the Holy Spirit, and that the Holy Spirit witnesses the truth through the written scriptures, notwithstanding the imperfections of the languages which compose the written texts. The Holy Spirit conveys spiritual witness of the gospel directly to our human spirit, and not through the vehicle of the psyche via written texts. However, the written texts are vital to quicken our mortal psyches to conscious doctrines.) - "Article V We affirm that God' s revelation in the Holy Scriptures was progressive. We deny that later revelation, which may fulfill earlier revelation, ever corrects or contradicts it. We further deny that any normative revelation has been given since the completion of the New Testament writings." (I surmise that, although this article denies the current existence of inerrant scripture outside of the bible, that it does now however deny the potential for new divine scriptures to be written in the future at some point, in accord with the view of progressive revelation.) - Would my personal surmising on these particular matters be accurate or inaccurate? ---- And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14 NAS95) - Reighnskye |
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126 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131382 | ||
Doc, In regards to names, I would make particular reference here to a scripture. ---- 'He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To him who overcomes, to him I will give some of the hidden manna, and I will give him a white stone, and a new name written on the stone which no one knows but he who receives it.' (Revelation 2:17 NAS95) ---- For all intents and purposes, I greatly lack insight into the basis of this particular verse. Some of the imageries elude me. However, it does stir into my mind the idea of the spiritual name that each of us has been issued by God. Indeed, names were commonly used in ancient times to express a person's character or identity. Nonetheless, I also believe that we have a spiritual identity in Christ, and that we each have our own unique spiritual names (in contrast to our earthly names), which describes who we are more articulately in higher divine language than what any mortal tongues can master. Our spiritual names are not utterable in any mortal tongue, and we will not discover our true spiritual names until we are seated in full glory with Christ. At such time, our earthly names and identities will fade away, due to their temporal nature. Hence, I no longer so much wish to know you as Johnny, Timmy, Sally or Sarah, insofar as these are merely earthly designations. Nor do I wish to designate you as "murderer, adulterer, thief, idolater", etc., insofar as God is not a respecter of persons or earthly identities. That's not who we are spiritually. These are not our names and designations, except it be on an earthly (non-spiritual) level. But it is best for us to become spiritually focused, and see past our own earthly designations and those of others as well. And by the way, I've not even mentioned God's name here yet, if indeed we could even adequately harness such a thing in our mortal understanding. I think not. - Reighnskye |
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127 | Does God judge nations directly? | Obad 1:2 | Reighnskye | 131442 | ||
Doc and Emmaus, I greatly appreciate the vast resources of knowledge that you each freely share. I'm trying to discern a little bit more about the white stone. - Emmaus, you offer a quote from the Navarre Bible which says: "The "white stone" is a reference to the custom of showing a alittle stone with some appropriate mark on it, to gain entrance to a feast or banguet. The name incribed on the stone referred to here shows that the Christian has a right to partake in the good things which the Lord reserves for those who win the victory. "The fact that only the recipient knows what is written on the stonepoints to the personal, intimate relationship between god (who issues the invitation) and the invited guest. ... "I have redeemed you, I have called you by name, you are mine." (Is 43:1)" - And Doc, you offer a quote here as well: "The white and black stones were used for taking the vote in judgement. Black for guilty and white for innocent. Maybe this is the reference." - These both seem to be very well thought-out answers to the meaning of the white stone. Are the two interpretations exclusive or interrelated? Is it in fact possible to know for sure either way? Or are some scriptures indecipherable for all practical intents and purposes? Are some verses in the bible just way too obscure for other more prominent verses to shine a clear and concise light on them? Further, would we have to rely on extra-biblical sources to properly interpret the more obscure bible texts? ---- 'He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To him who overcomes, to him I will give some of the hidden manna, and I will give him a white stone, and a new name written on the stone which no one knows but he who receives it.' (Revelation 2:17 NAS95) - Thanks again, Reighnskye |
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128 | How does pride influence self-deception? | Obad 1:3 | Reighnskye | 130673 | ||
Does not God offer to us certain tools so that we may generate spiritual awareness? Currently, we are largely entrenched in our own earthly psuedo-consciousness, as per the way of the flesh. Our senses are focused upon the physical mortal realm which is fading away, as opposed to the higher heavenly realms. But He gives a greater grace. Therefore it says, "GOD IS OPPOSED TO THE PROUD, BUT GIVES GRACE TO THE HUMBLE." (James 4:6 NAS95) You younger men, likewise, be subject to your elders; and all of you, clothe yourselves with humility toward one another, for GOD IS OPPOSED TO THE PROUD, BUT GIVES GRACE TO THE HUMBLE. (1 Peter 5:5 NAS95) |
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129 | Can mortals ascend into the heavens? | Obad 1:4 | Reighnskye | 130525 | ||
The context of Gen 11:4,5 involves humanity's attempts to ascend back to God in the heavenly realms via human efforts. Shall Obadiah 1:4 not likely be translated in this greater context? Every verse has a supernatural application and/or source, no? How shall we discern what is antichrist in our translation efforts? |
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130 | Can mortals ascend into the heavens? | Obad 1:4 | Reighnskye | 130683 | ||
May we then infer from these verses that a mortal may ascend high into the heavens? And what types of archons might one encounter upon arrival there or along the way? Must be an interesting trip. I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago--whether in the body I do not know, or out of the body I do not know, God knows--such a man was caught up to the third heaven. And I know how such a man--whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, God knows-- was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which a man is not permitted to speak. (2 Corinthians 12:2-4 NAS95) |
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131 | Can mortals ascend into the heavens? | Obad 1:4 | Reighnskye | 130851 | ||
Roger, I'm greatly attempting to better understand your position here. You seem to reference that you believe that the Word of God is complete, yet you also mention that there are certain subjects that scripture is not clear about. I guess that my understanding of what constitutes "complete" would be that the bible would contain the totality of all divine truth that may be potentially known in all the universe. Yet, I don't believe that this is the case with the written Word of God. The only "completeness" that I directly notice with the written scriptures is the completeness of the gospel message of eternal salvation. Namely, the bible is complete insofar as it contains the full message of the word and work of God's love and power unto eternal salvation, as authored and effected through Christ. However, in reference to most any other doctrine, I find the bible to be rather lacking. Perhaps I'll turn to commentaries to discover other matters beyond the gospel of salvation. - Now as to what information that the bible may lack, I do not necessarily believe that the door is closed. What is for Paul? Nor do I believe that Paul was restricted from uttering his extra-biblical revelations via some form of mandate. Rather, no words in mortal tongue could adequately express the grand revelations that he had experienced, without otherwise utilizing sorely diluted parables. Further, extra-biblical revelations (namely, those revelations beyond the message of the gospel of salvation) are indeed restricted from being added to the bible texts in any way. The written texts should never ever be tampered with, as per the curses promised in the book of Revelation. However, true extra-biblical revelations need never augment the canonized texts in any way. Many were likely even taught verbally in ancient bible times, whilst others were written without the tampering of bible texts. ---- Boasting is necessary, though it is not profitable; but I will go on to visions and revelations of the Lord. I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago--whether in the body I do not know, or out of the body I do not know, God knows--such a man was caught up to the third heaven. And I know how such a man--whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, God knows-- was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which a man is not permitted to speak. (2 Corinthians 12:1-4 NAS95) I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book. (Revelation 22:18-19 NAS95) RS |
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132 | How severe are God's punishments? | Obad 1:5 | Reighnskye | 130526 | ||
Is God actually a judge in the context of John 3:16? The verse references that those who believe shall not perish (hell), but also that God has not sent his Son, Jesus, to judge the world. | ||||||
133 | How severe are God's punishments? | Obad 1:5 | Reighnskye | 130689 | ||
And how shall we discern who loves the Lord and who does not? Or is this even our job? Albeit, in the practice of church excommunications, people's eternal states are assessed and determined, are they not? If anyone does not love the Lord, he is to be accursed. Maranatha. (1 Corinthians 16:22 NAS95) And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire. (Revelation 20:15 NAS95) |
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134 | Are mortals altogether ignorant? | Obad 1:7 | Reighnskye | 130527 | ||
Are not all those born into sin merely operating by a vain psuedo-consciousness from the start? Although the evidences of God's divine existence are clearly displayed in the creation, to any who would choose to see spiritually, yet humanity is fully blind from birth, no? It is only by ignorance that any of us continue to desire to live in sin, no? |
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135 | Are mortals altogether ignorant? | Obad 1:7 | Reighnskye | 130692 | ||
Indeed, the Holy Spirit often works upon the consciences of human beings, but are not people's consciences often rather skewed and unreliable for purposes of ascertaining God's moral will? People often call good evil and evil good. I suggest that our own human conscience is an insufficient barometer to judge how morally well that we're doing, apart from the active presence of the Holy Spirit in our lives (which not all have). For example, there are murderers who lack any sensation of conscience when they do wrong, due to their profusely hardened state, often originating in childhood. Still other people are overly-sensitive in conscience, and will condemn a person for having a glass of wine or wearing the wrong clothes to church. Again, we may call good evil or evil good. Are there not those who don't know enough to do good, if only due to the state of their own skewed conscience? Does not the sinner require the Law of Moses (lacking the conviction of the Holy Spirit) to restrain the sinful passions, when human conscience falls short? ---- For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, (Romans 2:14-15 NAS95) Therefore, to one who knows the right thing to do and does not do it, to him it is sin. (James 4:17 NAS95) |
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136 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | Reighnskye | 130521 | ||
Indeed Adam and Eve plunged the human race into spiritual darkness, but the rest of us were born into it, no? I am here differentiating between true spiritual consciousness (saints) versus a mere psuedo-consciousness (sinners). Do we who were born into sin possess the same liability of Adam and Eve, who once knew no sin before they fell? Is not our ignorance more complete than theirs? | ||||||
137 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | Reighnskye | 130523 | ||
Is it truly feasible that the choices we make while in spiritual darkness can be considered competent? Are we not born lacking knowledge, despite the vast plethora of divine evidences displayed to us? Granted, mortals operate in a state of psuedo-consiousness (earthly-based) from birth, but this may be considered to be altogether worthless in contrast to true spiritual consciousness (heavenly-based), which can only be experienced when one is awakened to Christ, no? Only a fool born in darkness would make a determined choice to reject the Spirit of Life, no? |
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138 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | Reighnskye | 130524 | ||
When mortals are cast out of psuedo-consciousness (earthly-based), it thereby grants opportunity to glimpse the greater spiritual reality all around. The true light will shine and the lesser light will fade. | ||||||
139 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | Reighnskye | 130694 | ||
If we possess the knowledge of good and evil as you say, (by which we are held accountable for our choice to accept or deny Christ), then from where does this knowledge originate? And how is it relayed? Can a mortal, unenlightened by the divine revelations of God, truly discern between good and evil? Due to the inherent failings of human conscience, the Law of Moses was necessitated. ---- Woe to those who call evil good, and good evil; Who substitute darkness for light and light for darkness; Who substitute bitter for sweet and sweet for bitter! (Isaiah 5:20 NAS95) |
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140 | Does God plunge mortals into ignorance? | Obad 1:8 | Reighnskye | 130695 | ||
When mortals changed the truth of God into a lie, thereby falling into the darkness of ignorance, was it before hearing the gospel or afterwards? Or were we simply rejecting the Law of Moses, as opposed to the Gospel of Christ? ---- Therefore God gave them over in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, so that their bodies would be dishonored among them. For they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen. (Romans 1:24-25 NAS95) |
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