Results 101 - 120 of 515
|
||||||
Results from: Notes Author: humbledbyhisgrace Ordered by Verse |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | Sexual Sin Follow up | Gen 2:18 | humbledbyhisgrace | 161124 | ||
Hey inmyheart! Very good point! "this is not just about you, it's also about her" It's important that the brother understand there are no loop holes in what God has made clear in His word regarding this subject. But just as important he needs to be fully aware that his decisions in this will also affect someone else. What a lesson for him to learn and hopefully understand. Well said! |
||||||
102 | Would Adam and Eve have fallen? | Gen 3:13 | humbledbyhisgrace | 186964 | ||
Greetings Brian! In regards to what you said " Well, I think we see enough actions in this world where people have come to the conclusion that they are more capable of making a proper decision about things than God is and I don't think Satan can take credit for all of those acts, I think sometimes man can do it, all by himself. When man reasons with his intellect that his decision is more right than God's, it is a sign of man's lack of faith and lack of trust in God and Jesus." Does this help explain your point? James 1:14-15 Mankind truly has a sinful nature and according to scripture we are clearly to blame for our sins. The old blame game started way back with Adam and Eve (Genesis 3:12, Genesis 3:13) and still goes on today! God bless, Steve |
||||||
103 | Would Adam and Eve have fallen? | Gen 3:13 | humbledbyhisgrace | 186987 | ||
Greetings Brian! Where does scripture teach this? Steve |
||||||
104 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 178948 | ||
Greetings NewPilgrim! The question was, "Is there any scripture regarding whether Jesus could sin?" You have offered much opinion but no scripture. This is dangerous when our opinion contradicts scripture. Keep in mind we don't want to mislead anyone. You said "It was entirely possible for Jesus to have sinned, elsewise the overcoming of temptation would be nonsense and his sacrifice would be an eternal joke, being little more than a token gesture." This is a bold statement. Is it wise to teach others so boldly with our own opinions with out being able to back it up with scripture? Are you talking about Jesus overcoming temptation or us? Either way, can you provide scripture proof of your teaching? You said "For Jesus to be fit to judge, the scripture teaches us, he lived as a man, with the temptations of man." Actually, scripture teaches us that Jesus is fit to judge us because God the Father has given Him this right! John 5:22-23 22 For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son, 23 so that all will honor the Son even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him. You said "If Jesus didnt have the potential to sin then temptation would not be temptation at all." Please, give us one scripture that teaches such a thing! James 1:13-15 (NASB95) 13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. 14 But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust. 15 Then when lust has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and when sin is accomplished, it brings forth death. Can you show me in the scriptures above where it says anything about Jesus must have the potential to sin before we are tempted. Does it not teach we are tempted when we give into our "OWN" lust. Can you show any scripture that teaches such a teaching. In Christ, Steve |
||||||
105 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 178949 | ||
Greetings Brother! If he would have done so? Surly we cannot pass this off as proof of such a teaching! I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father, but how does this prove He could have been disobedient to the Father? Is the "If" not assumption on your part? How can it be? Colossians 2:9 (NASB95) For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form |
||||||
106 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 178993 | ||
Greetings Brother! You said "If He said He could do this, which He did in fact say, but it was impossible for Him to do so, then you are calling Him a lier, and as I have said in my post to "NewPilgrim" on this topic, (which post I suggest you read), "my Jesus is not a lier"." Let's please be careful with our accusations. Accusing me of calling our Lord a liar is unacceptable. I'll leave it at that and let you address your own motivation for such an accusation against a brother. If my original post instigated such anger in you I apologize and ask you to forgive me. That was not my intent! You ask "What is the point of His saying this, if as you maintain He was incapable of doing it?, it just does not make sense." I humbly admit I probably don't make good sense most of the time. Let me try and explain. Matthew 26:51-54 (NASB95) 51 And behold, one of those who were with Jesus reached and drew out his sword, and struck the slave of the high priest and cut off his ear. 52 Then Jesus said* to him, "Put your sword back into its place; for all those who take up the sword shall perish by the sword. 53 "Or do you think that I cannot appeal to My Father, and He will at once put at My disposal more than twelve legions of angels? 54 "How then will the Scriptures be fulfilled, which say that it must happen this way?" I don't for a second think I can speak for Jesus but in MY OPINION and with confidence I might add, the point of him saying this was not to prove he could sin which you teach! Based on the scriptures, I would say his point is clear in the above passage paying close attention to verse 54. Is he not teaching that what was taking place and would take place was the will of God. Notice in verse 54 it says, "it must happen this way". Is it possible to find conflict in the triune God? Let's look back at exactly what I said. My version not yours :-) I said "I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father, but how does this prove He could have been disobedient to the Father?" You pointed to the scripture as evidence that Jesus could sin. In my opinion this is a worldly view placing Christ on the same level as man, completely over looking the fact He is God and well teaching that God himself could sin. You attribute the nature of mankind (sinful) to Jesus. To this again I ask, How can it be? As the son of God I believe he could do anything but sin! It goes against the nature of God to sin so how is it possible that He could have sinned? If the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are one God, how is it possible that any of the three persons in the triune God could sin? You ask "Please tell me what Coll 2:9 has to do with this? "in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily", so what, how does this relate to what Jesus said at Matthew 26:53?." It was a reminder to you who this Jesus was who you attributed the ability to sin. God bless, Steve |
||||||
107 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 179049 | ||
Greetings Edwin! You said “Your problem as I see it is one that is all too common with a lot of christians, that is an inability to reconcile the Diety of our Lord Jesus, with His true humanity.” Interesting comment. This is basically what I was thinking about you ;-) I don’t mean to sound arrogant here but looking at your statement and then the scripture references and follow on questions it appears to me you fail to understand what you accuse me of not understanding. Regardless, I want to be sure and take the right approach to this discussion. It appears the discussion has been restricted from public view which I guess is a good indication we are on thin ice ??? Moving on cautiously, looking back at your scriptures and questions, can you think of any scripture where God calls Jesus God? Just had to through that one in :-) Back to the subject, two natures, fully God and fully man, united in one person! God cannot sin, Mankind can sin, Jesus has both divine and human nature united in one person, if Jesus is God and we both agree with that as the scriptures clearly teach it, then in my opinion the human nature of Jesus could not have sinned because it would have involved the person of Jesus which as we have both agreed with scripture clearly teaches both divine and human nature in the one person of Jesus. God bless, Steve |
||||||
108 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 179136 | ||
Greetings Edwin! I have no problem comprehending what you say. I just disagree with it! “Let me try once more to make my position clear. At Matthew 26:53, Jesus said "Do you think that I cannot appeal to my Father" (ESV), please tell me Steve would I be right in interpreting this as "I can appeal to my Father", I am able to do it, it is not impossible for me to do this , however, although I can, I will not, as if I did, how would Scripture be fullfiled?, (verse 54). Please, Please tell me Steve, have I completely misunderstood what Jesus was saying, and if so how then should I have understood it?” No, I would not agree with your interpretation. Where you and I differ is where you insert “however, although I can, I will not”. This to me is a stretch and misses the point of why He said what He said. “If Jesus were to have done what He clearly said He could do, and thereby have prevented Scripture from being fullfiled, would He have sinned?, Yes, or No.” If Jesus had done as you say, what He said, do you think the following verse would say what it says? It’s obvious we see this differently. But trust me, it’s not because I don’t understand what you are saying. As I said, I just disagree with it. Right or wrong in interpretation, I will always try and submit to His Holiness and with His grace do my best not to make God into our image just because I cannot grasp His word or His ways. To me, it is foolishness of us to apply the wisdom of man which seems to, if not always make God into our own image. You find strength in that you say the Lord Jesus could have sinned but didn't. So be it! I on the other hand find strength that The Lord God (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) is Holy and sin never has been, is not, and never will be a threat to corrupting His Holiness. God bless you Edwin! Steve |
||||||
109 | Why did God block access to the tree of | Gen 3:24 | humbledbyhisgrace | 157164 | ||
Interesting point Doc that you bring up this act of mercy. One might ask, how could it possibly be merciful of God to block access to this tree of life? After all, if one could "eat" of it then one would live forever. Isn't that what we want? Doesn't man want to live for ever? But do we want to live for ever in this life that is tainted with sin and suffering and prevents us from enjoying the relationship with our Lord as it was intended in the beginning? Or do we want to have everlasting life in heaven with our Lord and enjoy the relationship with Him where we are in His presence at all times and there is no sin or suffering? God truly is merciful! Looking back on my post I'm afraid I may have used a poor choice of words and approach. I was thinking bigger picture (access to eternal life with Christ) when I said the tree of life is not blocked and sort of took the scripture out of context. I'm thankful for your post because it allowed me to see how hastily I posted and basically miss represented the actual scripture. Thank God for His mercy and thank you for your post! |
||||||
110 | Birth place of Cain and Abel | Gen 4:1 | humbledbyhisgrace | 188596 | ||
Greetings Sister! Amen! One need only scroll down to the bottom of the home page of that web site and realize they have drifted from the teachings of Christianity! Steve |
||||||
111 | Birth place of Cain and Abel | Gen 4:1 | humbledbyhisgrace | 188597 | ||
Correction! Adam had relations with his wife (Eve) and gave birth to Cain and Abel (Genesis 4:1-2) which as I read it was after Adam and Eve were driven out of the garden of Eden. |
||||||
112 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214882 | ||
Vintage, What do you make of God's punishment of Cain then? Steve |
||||||
113 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214887 | ||
Well, Great! I too believe what the bible says and think it essential we express it properly. Something I constantly work on myself but have failed at more then once :-( Where does the bible say "where there is no law there is no sin" ? It says there is no transgression (Romans 4:15). The sin is not imputed (Romans 5:13). Steve |
||||||
114 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214904 | ||
No one has stated that "a" result of a burnt offering does not lead to death. The fallacy is saying that "When God told Abraham to kill his son". You are attempting to reconcile something that is not even accurate. In other words, you start off your search to reconcile based on the fact killing is a sin and as you put it, God told Abraham to kill his son. Let me ask you this, was the test to see if Abraham would kill his son as you put it or was it to test Abraham's obedience? Steve |
||||||
115 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214935 | ||
bibleman, We do know God cannot be tempted with evil nor does He tempt anyone (James 1:13). This is clear teaching in the scriptures. This verse alone should teach you that your heart and mind are in conflict with what the word is teaching you regarding Abraham and Isaac if you view it as an act of evil. Genesis 22:1 (NASB) Now it came about after these things, that God tested Abraham, and said to him, "Abraham!" And he said, "Here I am." Hebrews 11:17-19 (NASB) 11:17 By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises was offering up his only begotten son; 11:18 it was he to whom it was said, "IN ISAAC YOUR DESCENDANTS SHALL BE CALLED." 11:19 He considered that God is able to raise people even from the dead, from which he also received him back as a type. Clearly, God tested Abraham! He did not tempt him with evil as you see it. If you cannot reconcile the difference you will continue to stumble over it. The test was Abraham's obedience... Genesis 22:12 (NASB) He said, "Do not stretch out your hand against the lad, and do nothing to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me." And something to keep in mind. God was not surprised by what Abraham did. Abraham was the one being tested and it was Abraham who proved to God that he would be obedient even if it meant sacrificing his son. God then reminded Abraham of His promise/blessing because of his obedience. The test was not so God could find out what Abraham would do! The test was so that Abraham would find out what he would do. It was to strengthen Abraham's faith. Steve |
||||||
116 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214939 | ||
Vintage, As a follow-up... The reason I point this out is due to the original question by bibleman12. He and/or his question at least seems to be trying to reconcile sin and why it's not considered sin that God tempted Abraham with. In his question you can see that from the start the view is tilted in that it has the understanding of God telling Abraham to "kill" his son. That is not what the scripture say but to our sin tainted minds/hearts we are easily lead astray by the simplest of words and/or deceit. So if we set out to reconcile this with the view that God told him to kill his son we are on the wrong road right from the start. Further complication is introduced when we seek to justify God through some technicality such as there was no law against murder when God told Abraham to offer Isaac as a burnt offering. Obviously you only have the written law in mind to make such a statement. The view skews reality and insinuates that murder was only a sin after the written law was established. That's a reverse of what is actually true. Murder has always been sinful. The example of Cain should help us understand that. Sin did not become sin because of the written Law! So if splitting hairs is what we need to do to gain an accurate understanding let's all split hairs so that we all might gain a proper understanding of His word! I'm okay with it! Some times I need others to split hairs for me :-) Again, from the scripture you used it clearly teaches there is no transgression of the law and that sin is not imputed. Neither verse you point to says there is no sin. Steve |
||||||
117 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214940 | ||
Amen! | ||||||
118 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | humbledbyhisgrace | 163450 | ||
Greetings brother Edwin! Can you please expand on your statements? You said “When it says "the LORD hardened Pharoah's heart", all it means is that an allready hard man was made even harder as a result of what the Lord our God did to the land of Egtpt.” How do you come to this conclusion? What scriptures are you referring to? In Exodus 4:21 it says “The LORD said to Moses, "When you go back to Egypt see that you perform before Pharaoh all the wonders which I have put in your power; but I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go.” Not only does God say the He will harden Pharaoh’s heart, but He also says why He will do it. Thanks and God bless! Steve |
||||||
119 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | humbledbyhisgrace | 163464 | ||
Good stuff Mark! This subject speaks well to the sovereignty of God does it not? And should give reason for many of us to praise Him for His mercy on us! Thank you holy and merciful Father! God Bless! Steve |
||||||
120 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | humbledbyhisgrace | 163547 | ||
Hello Brother Edwin, I pray all is well with you today! Based on your original response to srinaldi I can only assume at this point you believe that God did not harden Pharaoh's heart. Please correct me if I'm wrong. In my opinion, it clearly says in Exodus 4:21 and the other verses that Mark pointed to in his post that God harden Pharaoh’s heart and the hearts of others. I do not understand how Ezekiel 33:11 and 2 Peter 3:9 change that? Can you explain how they would? Is He not justified in doing so? He is the sovereign almighty creator and He is not dealing with the innocent. We (mankind) have rejected Him from the beginning. We are all sinners (Romans 3:23). Even those of us that have been blessed to receive His saving grace are not worthy of it. But it was His will that we receive it. The way I see this, the sovereign God chooses to do with each of us as He wills for His purpose to bring forth His plan and to glorify Himself to mankind. The fact is, if God doesn't show us, mankind is not capable of knowing Him (1 Corinthians 2:14). Is it harder to understand that He hardened someone's heart then it is to understand the blessing of His salvation for those that He has given it to? Do we deserve His grace or do we deserve His wrath? |
||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ] Next > Last [26] >> |