Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222666 | ||
My Dearly Beloved Doc, I still maintain that these decrees are based on man's interpretation of the Word of God. They may be old and are a commonly held by the Church, but still they were derived by man from the Bible based on man's understanding of the Scripture. When I first read your response (at a glance that is), I almost chose to let this issue to just “die”. I thought we weren't going anywhere with this discussion. I also thought I needed to seek for more revelation and direction on how best to express myself on the subject, but on second thought, I think it is not a question of my expressing myself. I think this is just a wonderful discussion worth exploring further. Also, your current response does not show anything to make me think you misunderstood me. If I may say it myself, I must be doing fairly well expressing myself. Back to the subject, it is however good that the law was written, according to Romans 15:4 (KJV) "For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope." Reading another book in alongside what Paul just said to the Romans, "But certain individuals have missed the mark on this very matter [and] have wandered away into vain arguments and discussions and purposeless talk. They are ambitious to be doctors of the Law (teachers of the Mosaic ritual), but they have no understanding either of the words and terms they use or of the subjects about which they make [such] dogmatic assertions. Now we recognize and know that the Law is good if anyone uses it lawfully [for the purpose for which it was designed], Knowing and understanding this: that the Law is not enacted for the righteous (the upright and just, who are in right standing with God), but for the lawless and unruly, for the ungodly and sinful, for the irreverent and profane, for those who strike and beat and [even] murder fathers and strike and beat and [even] murder mothers, for manslayers,[For] impure and immoral persons, those who abuse themselves with men, kidnapers, liars, perjurers - and whatever else is opposed to wholesome teaching and sound doctrine as laid down by the glorious Gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted." 1Timothy 1:6-11 (AMP). In 2 Corinthians 5:17 (KJV) "Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new." Going by what Paul said both in 1Timothy 1:6-11 and 2 Corinthians 5:17, the Christian is not under the law. The law was never intended for the new man in Christ and I still maintain that. Westminster Confession of Faith Chapter 1, Paragraphs 6 and 10: I more than agree with the West Ministers that we need the Holy Spirit in our understanding of the Bible; you can call me one of the West Ministers in that regard. I still prefer to go by the Bible though and I still maintain that these are good scholarly man made "documents". My dictionary defines a doctrine as a set of beliefs or principles held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group. I wonder why you don't want me to refer to these man made “documents” as man made doctrines. They may be derived from the Bible, but they are still derived based on man’s own understanding and interpretation of the Bible. From where I stand, they are man made doctrines. Kindly shed in more light why they are not man made doctrines. Thank you for being such an excellent teacher, unfortunately I have to disagree with you on the law. Stay so blessed, King T! |
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2 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | DocTrinsograce | 222712 | ||
Dear King, You wrote, "They may be derived from the Bible, but they are still derived based on man’s own understanding and interpretation of the Bible. From where I stand, they are man made doctrines. Kindly shed in more light why they are not man made doctrines." (sic) I suggest that you get a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance and look up the Greek words G1318, G1319, G1320, and G1321. Read each and every reference in context. Write down the references, and next to them write down what you learn about doctrine from that passage. If you do this, you will have a complete Biblical definition of doctrine; i.e., a soundly doctrinal definition of doctrine. :-) The text of Scripture is a communication from God to man. It is the Word of God; i.e., the Logos, from which we get our English word logic. The Word is the God's self revelation (Hebrews 1:1-2). It is His means of working redemption in the lives of the elect (Jeremiah 23:28-29; Luke 8:11, 21; Hebrews 4:12-13; etc.). In Him, Doc |
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3 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222780 | ||
Hi Doc, Been away from the internet for some time. I got the SEC as you suggested and I did look up G1318 - didaktos, G1319 - didaskalia, G1320 - didaskalos and G1321 - didasko. Thanks man, and may I ask what you do, as in your profession. I know this is a Bible study forum, but I just got curious. I hope I am not being too personal, and I will understand should you choose to answer this question. Stay blessed, King T! |
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4 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | DocTrinsograce | 222828 | ||
Dear King, I am a software engineer. I have been in this field for over 35 years. My turn to ask a question: What are the other two languages you speak? In Him, Doc |
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5 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 223002 | ||
Hi Doc, Been away in the farm. Setting up some project somewhere out in the bush and far from the internet. Judging by the number of years in your field, I'm truly humbled. I know we are Christian now, but in my "culture" it is disallowed to speak up to an elder like I did, even when one thinks he is right. Anyway for the common good of the Gospel, disagreements are inevitable. I hope I did not sound disrespectful in any way. Well, I speak several languages grouped into two; that is, Zulu, Xhosa, Siswati and Sindebe - grouped as Nguni, and Setswana (Tswana) and Sesotho (Sotho) - grouped as Sotho-Tswana. These are grouped according to their similarities. Of course there are several others that I understand and speak though not with fluency. English will be my third after the two group categories. Of course I am in Southern Africa and a farmer. Thank you for asking and sorry for the delayed response. I see you had been extremely busy in the forum. May the good Lord richly bless you with abundance for all the good work that you are rendering to His flock. Stay blessed, King T! |
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6 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | DocTrinsograce | 223014 | ||
Sawubona, King... I have a couple in our church from South Africa who are missionaries to many parts of the African continent. They, of course, speak Afrikaans -- but I do not know if they speak other languages. Their accent, reminds me of the Dutch accent. I can say a few words in Swahili and Ewe. However, as you know, I am really only a monoglot, struggling to be understood in my own native tongue. The efforts you have put into knowing these many languages is a blessing in many ways. What kind of church do attend there? How may we pray for you, your peoples, and your nation? In Him, Doc PS Feel free to write to me personally. My email address is at the bottom of my profile. |
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