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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | Just Read Mark | 200924 | ||
I understand that Jews, keeping the faith in cultures all around the Mediterranean, translated the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek. They did this about 250 years before Christ. This translation -- the Septuagint -- was the version most known in the early church. Some verses have discrepancies between the Hebrew and the Septuagint, and these discrepancies are carried over into the New Testament. I understand the we are to treat the original manuscripts as authoritative --- what then are we to make of the New Testament's treatment of the Septuagint as authoritative? |
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2 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 200925 | ||
Hi, JRM... Translation is never easy, particularly as you move from a visceral and inexact language like Hebrew to a much more structured and precise language like Greek. Look at the challenges we have going the other direction into English -- a language much more similar to Hebrew than Greek. Although you may not have intended your question to be entirely of a subjective nature, it is, at least, subjective sounding. At any rate, I'd deem it unlikely to have a perfectly objective answer. Therefore, I will render a subjective answer: This treatment of the Septuagint in the Kerygma along with the unlikely set of events that led to the Septuagint itself, are a clear indication of God's providential care for His Word. It only makes sense, after all, given the clearly Biblical doctrine of sola Scriptura. In Him, Doc |
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