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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 223512 | ||
Lightedsteps, You said: "Even though Jesus was without sin, when He was baptized by John, could it have been for the original sin of Adam that is upon the flesh of all men? Being 100 percent Man, and 100 percent God, Jesus had to have had the sin of Adam dwelling in his flesh, because he was born of a woman." and "Jesus had to have sin dwelling in His flesh, otherwise He could not have been tempted as we are, because the temptation would have been of a perfect deity" and "That part of Jesus that was truly flesh, had to be purged of the sin of Adam, in order for it to be said, He was without spot or blemish." Oh no no no no no no no. How you fly in the face of all of scripture! 2Co 5:21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. Does not Romans chapter 5, and 1 Cor 15 lay out for us that the second Adam is completely unlike the first adam? And yet they were both fully human. How then did they differ if not in nature to sin? How can we say that we hope to one day be in the likeness of the second Adam if it implies no freedom from our nature of sin!? Do you not also recognize that sin and falleness is not inherent to the human nature!? Was manking created fallen and sinful? Is christ in his ascended humanity fallen and sinful? How then can we say humanity of necessity is sinful? On the contrary it is a quality that is peculiar to those whom have fallen and it is an addition which is foreign to humanity even though its application is universal to all but the son of God. Christ assumed flesh, but he did not assume our sin nature. And since a nature of sin is not inherent to created humanity and only to fallen humanity Christ is able to truely be said to be fully human and yet sinless! Did not all the scriptures point to this? If not what then is the reason for a lamb without blemish? Is the blood of Lambs truely different to God or rather was it pointing forward to the sinlessness of Christ! I beg you to see that all the scriptures that you can possibly point to about the universal plight of fallen sinners is not about what it is inherent to humanity, but rather what they have universally fallen into. Therefore when christ deemed to take upon himself the nature of humanity, he did not also need to take upon himself the stain of sin! In Christ, Beja |
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2 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | ariel levin | 223513 | ||
Shalom Beja, Thank you. You said it much better than I could possibly have done. The only response that came to my mind was that the whole purpose in the virgin conception and birth was to bypass the "seed of man" as the sin inclination came by way of the man Adam. Therefore Messiah was not born of man and had no sin in Him. |
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