Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | John 10:31 | Bible general Archive 3 | Noveta | 163015 | ||
Hello everyone, I am have tried to search before asking this question, but am not successful. I am reading the book of John and in Chapter 10. I would like someone to explain to me what does it mean to blaspheme. From what I have found, if you disrespect or break any of the laws of the ten commandments or if you have disrespected the Holy spirit? However in John 10:31 they are accusing Jesus to blaspheme because he is saying he is God and he is God's son correct? . 29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. 30 I and my Father are one. 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? 33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. 34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? 35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; 36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? 37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. 38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. Also, I do not understand Jesus response, "Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? 35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken" What does he mean, written in your law,Ye are gods? God bless Novie |
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2 | John 10:31 | Bible general Archive 3 | Kento | 163016 | ||
From Websters: blasphemy Main Entry: blas•phe•my Function: noun 1 a : the act of insulting or showing contempt or lack of reverence for God b : the act of claiming the attributes of deity 2 : irreverence toward something considered sacred or inviolable The Pharisees accused Jesus of blasphemy because he claimed to be God. They did not accept him as the messiah. Jesus demonstrates his deity by the miracles he performed. From Albert Barnes NT Commentary: Verse 35. Unto whom the word of God came. That is, who were his servants, or who received their dignity and honour only because the law of God was intrusted to them. The word of God here means the command of God; his commission to them to do justice. The scripture cannot be broken. See Mt 5:19. The authority of the Scripture is final; it cannot be set aside. The meaning is, "If, therefore, the Scripture uses the word god as applied to magistrates, it settles the question that it is right to apply the term to those in office and authority. If applied to them, it may be to others in similar offices. It can not, therefore, be blasphemy to use this word as applicable to a personage so much more exalted than mere magistrates as the Messiah." |
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3 | Jesus response | Bible general Archive 3 | Noveta | 163019 | ||
I am sorry, but your reponse is way over the top of my Head. Are you saying Jesus was telling them he had authority to be called God because he is within the law and that he was the law. Because he said ", that the Father is in me, and I in him." Him and his Farther hold the same attributes (nature) and are equal therefore he is authorized to say he is God? He was using Their law as example, by saying are you allowed to call yourselves gods within your own law because you have authority within YOUR law. Well the same concept or rule holds for him and his farther? Thanks for your help. God Bless Noveta |
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4 | Jesus response | Bible general Archive 3 | mark d seyler | 163021 | ||
Hi Noveta, I thing what Brad was saying is something like this: "You (the pharisees) already know, from your law (Psalms 82, Exodus 21,22) that mere men are sometimes called gods. Why then do you have such a negative reaction if I (Jesus) say I am the Son of God?" Does that help? Love in Christ, Mark |
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5 | Jesus responds | Bible general Archive 3 | Noveta | 163022 | ||
Yes this helps. Keeping it simple always helps me. But this leds me to this question. In the King James Version it says they stoned him because he was saying he is GOD. But Jesus response and says he is saying he is the Son of God. Calling your self the Son of God doesn't mean you are saying you are GOD. Many religions believe Jesus is the Son of God. But they don't believe he is GOD. But he is saying he is the Son of God in this verse, but later when he also says "that the Father is in me, and I in him." Which means he was saying he is GOD, correct? You know they say the important question to answer, is who do you say that I am? Many people say they are safe because they do believe he is the Son of God, but they don't have to believe he is God? Which they say is how Peter responded to this important question. How do I respond to that? Someone is asking me these important questions, thanks again for your help. God Bless, Noveta |
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6 | Jesus responds | Bible general Archive 3 | mark d seyler | 163023 | ||
Hi Noveta, This is such a good proof-text to the Diety of Christ because the Jews wanted to stone Jesus. They knew exactly what He was saying. Anytime someone tells you that Jesus never claimed to be God, just look at every time the Jews wanted to kill Him, it was because He claimed to be God. But as the Jews are reacting to Jesus' statements, Jesus is saying to them, in effect, "Now slow down a minute - you don't just stone someone for calling Himself God, until you know just what they mean, after all, the Scripture calls men "gods". So hear me out!" The Pharisees rejected Jesus claim to Godhood out of hand. The already believed that the Messiah would be a man, and not God come as Man, and they were not willing to believe anything different. When Jesus asked them later "Who's Son would the Messiah be?", He was trying to do the same thing. He wanted to shake their foundations, so they could see their error, and understand the truth. They rightly answers that the Messiah would be David's son. Jesus asked them why then did David call Him "Lord", if He was David's son? Jesus was trying to get them to look past their preconceptions, and to see their error, and to understand the truth. Again, I hope this helps Love in Christ, Mark |
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