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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Adam first man or first man in Eden? | Bible general Archive 3 | xina | 182154 | ||
Grammatically, 'the' man doesn't necessarily indicate there is no other so much as a reference to the specific one in the previous sentence... However, I am finding the Corinthians verse helpful...thank you. | ||||||
2 | Adam first man or first man in Eden? | Bible general Archive 3 | mark d seyler | 182157 | ||
I'm looking at "the man" in reference to "man" in the previous verse. This is saying, "God formed man from the dust. God put the man He formed into the garden." The first reference appears indefinate and inclusive. Not "a man", or "the man", simply "man", as if to say all men who had been formed. The next verse clarifies to say "the man", letting us know it was only one. Think of something we might make, say a clay pot. "I made pottery. I put the pot I made in a window box." How many pots did I make? Anyway, that's how I understand this. And it seems to be in harmony with the rest of Scripture, which, as you also noticed, the Corinthians passage seems explicit. Love in Christ, Mark |
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