Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Parable | 180592 | ||
Your conclusions may have merit, but upon what do you base them, specifically? As for my hypothetical situation, it was to get at the point of whether the issue centers on who was involved, and perhaps not on the means by which it was done. So there was a point in mentioning it. As for it not being adultery if there was no intercourse, that's understood. However, my purpose was to consider the deeper question of what constitutes infidelity. For example, in Jeremiah 28:8, God says "I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries." If physical intercourse is necessary, this can only mean that the nation of Israel had physical intercourse with someone besides God, when most understand this to refer to Israel's idolatry with other religions. |
||||||
2 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | srbaegon | 180594 | ||
Hello Parable, I'm sorry that I forgot about that reference. There certainly is spiritual adultery which Israel was guilty of. You are correct that there is an issue concerning the persons involved. In order to sin, one must be able to sin. God cannot because he is supremely holy (Is 6:1-3, et al). To say that God committed infidelity is to accuse him of the impossible. If God had committed an unlawful sexual act with Mary, he must be killed according to the Law. If God had the relationship with Mary that you are saying, then he is guilty of breaking his own eternal commandment, not once but twice: sexual impurity and defying the consequence. Steve |
||||||