Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Adultery? | Bible general Archive 3 | Parable | 180499 | ||
I have not found any postings on this topic, but if there are some, please refer me. The topic is divorce. Jesus expressly states that divorce is not legitimate unless adultery is involved. When Joseph discovered that Mary was pregnant with Jesus, he considered divorcing her, but the angel encouraged him not to do this on the grounds that Mary's baby was from God. It is also stated that Joseph was a righteous man, so divorcing Mary would have been righteous, on the grounds that she must have committed adultery. The bible does describes that the Holy Spirit came upon her and impregnated her. If this is not adultery, why not? If it is adultery, what is the significance of this? |
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2 | Adultery? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180500 | ||
Greetings Parable! You ask a very interesting question, but make some huge leaps in logic. :-) You state that: "It is also stated that Joseph was a righteous man, so divorcing Mary would have been righteous, on the grounds that she must have committed adultery." These statements simply do not logically follow from one another. Even though Joseph is a righteous man that does not mean that he is sinless. So, he could certainly be a righteous man and consider doing something sinful. Secondly, Joseph only considered putting her away privately. He did not actually do it. So, even if his considered action would have been sinful, he never actually did it. Finally, we know that Mary did not commit adultery since she knew no man until after the birth of Jesus. While most would have considered her to be either immoral or an adulteress because they did not know what God was doing, the fact remains that she did not commit adultery. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Parable | 180511 | ||
My summary of the circumstances was perhaps too cursory; it was to provide context rather than prove anything. The core of my question is this: does what happened between Mary and the Holy Spirit constitute adultery? Mary and Joseph were betrothed, which in those days was part of marriage. Adultery is defined as illicit sexual relations with a person other than the marriage partner. The Holy Spirit is a person, and impregnation is about as sexual as it gets. I'm asking for the biblical basis that this act, committed by a willing Mary and God, is not adultery. Either it is by virtue of the fact the law does not apply to God or what happened was somehow not illicit, sexual or both. I favor the latter, because Mary's virginity remained intact, at least until after the birth of Jesus, when Mary had children by Joseph. |
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4 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180512 | ||
Greetings Parable! Thanks for the clarification! There is no evidence that the action of the Holy Spirit was illicit or sexual. The Holy Spirit did not have sex with Mary. Scripture simply says that His power would overshadow her. So, I can't see anyway that the Spirit's actions could be construed as adultery. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Parable | 180513 | ||
Not only the Spirit's actions, but also those of Mary, who said "May it be to me as you have said." Luke 1:38 |
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6 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | humbledbyhisgrace | 180516 | ||
James 1:13 (NASB95) Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. | ||||||
7 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Parable | 180540 | ||
Excellent citation! Thank you! | ||||||