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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Christians before Jesus came | Bible general Archive 2 | chesed | 128691 | ||
Hi Steve, My statement about Jesus and others being first Century Jews ties in with #1 and #2 of your previous post. As you know, the hermeneutical methods used by the Jews of the first Century were four-fold: Literal, midrashic, pesher, and allegorical. For the most part, when dealing with OT prophesy, Jesus, his followers, and the NT writers often subscribed to the pesher method, which was very much focussed on contemporary application, often without ceoncern for the original OT context. There is nothing wrong with this approach in and of itself- it was just a common method...but the fact is that it did not take into account the OT context; it simply made a present-day application. #1) Mt.21 comes from Zechariah 9. In the context of Zechariah 9, we do have a prophesy, but it is not about Jesus. Yes, Jesus 'fulfilled' this verse by doing the same thing, but in the original context this was referring to someone else (most scholars would say Simon Maccabbees). #2) Mt.2:3-6 comes from Micah 5, which refers to the faithful remnant in Babylonian captivity who would 'give birth to' a new King of peace when they returned. (we see in Zechariah that this was to be Zerubabel...but others interpret this to be Joshua). And to answer your last question in a word, no. Most prophesies do not include the name of the person being referred to. I hope this clears up what I am trying to say. chesed |
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2 | Christians before Jesus came | Bible general Archive 2 | srbaegon | 128698 | ||
Hello chesed, What you have stated is that none of the prophecies were about Jesus, and that he applied them to himself because he felt like it and not because they were supposed to be about him. Is that really where you want to go with this? Steve |
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3 | Christians before Jesus came | Bible general Archive 2 | chesed | 128700 | ||
That is not what I said. I believe that in just about every one of my posts that I have clearly stated that Jesus was the fulfillment of the OT. What I am saying is that there are very few direct 1-1 correlating prophesies about Jesus in the OT which no body else could have fulfilled. Most of the things in the NT where Jesus fulfills a prophesy are prophesy by analogy, type-antitype, etc. There is nothing wrong about this. I don't think that this takes away from Jesus as being divine...I am simply trying to show that the 1-1 direct prophesies about Jesus (eg.Isa 53)are more rare than the other types (Hos.11, Isa.7, etc)which were not originally about Jesus, but were later 'fulfilled' by him. This is not heretical or anything like that. It is just practical, Biblical Theology with respect to the OT context. I believe the same things that you do about Jesus..I just think that the Jesus we know in the NT does not need to be read into the OT as much as we like for him to be. He is just fine as he is in the NT. blessings, chesed |
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4 | Christians before Jesus came | Bible general Archive 2 | mark d seyler | 128706 | ||
Hi Chesed, If Jesus "was the fulfillment of the OT", was the OT written about Jesus for Him to fulfill? Love in Christ, Mark |
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5 | Christians before Jesus came | Bible general Archive 2 | chesed | 128710 | ||
Good question. I would say that the OT was written for those in the OT. I don't think that God made his people go be slaves in Egypt for 400 years just so Jesus could fulfill a verse in the Bible. | ||||||