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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why no gender-neutral language in NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Hank | 8490 | ||
The answer to your question about why the more literal and (generally) more conservative translations do not use "gender neutral" language is that the languages from which they are translated did not use "gender neutral" language. We have no gender-neutral third person singular personal pronouns in the English language. The word "it" hardly can be used to describe human beings. So translators, in order to translate "gender-neutrally" are compelled to resort to various lierary devices; namely, to recast the sentence by using a construction that is different from the original languages, or to pluralize the personal pronouns so that "he" becomes "they"; "he", "them" etc. Where the original text says, for example, "adam" (man) they must resort to such terms as people, persons, or mortals. As rich and as versatileas our English tongue is, it does have its weaknesses. But even so, the language has flourished for years and even the simplest of folk understood perfectly well what Jesus meant when He said "Man shall not live by bread alone." Only recently has this become an issue. --Hank | ||||||
2 | Why no gender-neutral language in NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Norrie | 10110 | ||
Before feminism came in, man was considered the species, then it was male or female. That was back when you were a salesman, not a sales associate or a draftsman, not a draftsperson, etc. I thought it was silly getting so technical of that when it started and still do, I'm not very politically correct. | ||||||