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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | But the older NASB did. Why? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 3817 | ||
Maybe because "thee" is not the same thing as "you" as we might think it is now. "Thee" (in the KJV) addresses only one person. "You" (in the KJV) addresses more than one person. We are not wired up to think that way now, but if we were it might would help us in Bible study. example: Luke 22:31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (the disciples not just Peter), that he may sift you (the disciples), as wheat: Luke 22:32 But I have prayed for thee (Peter in particular), that thy faith (Peter's faith) fail not: and when thou (Peter) art converted, strengthen thy (Peter's)brethren. |
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2 | ... | Bible general Archive 1 | wdc | 4056 | ||
In verse 31 how do you know that Jesus was speaking to all the disciples and not just Peter? Is it based on the use of "you" and "thee", or do you have some other support? later...wdc |
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3 | ... | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 4063 | ||
For me it is based on the use of "you" and "thee" as you said. I do not know Greek (except salad and boklava!) but the Greek for "you" (KJV and NASB) in verse 31 is "humas" (accusative case?). The Greek for "thee/you" (KJV/NASB) in verse 32 is "sou" (genitive case?). So there is a difference. Maybe you or someone that knows Greek could tell us the difference in the two. Thanks, Jesus Lives! |
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