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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | But the older NASB did. Why? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 3817 | ||
Maybe because "thee" is not the same thing as "you" as we might think it is now. "Thee" (in the KJV) addresses only one person. "You" (in the KJV) addresses more than one person. We are not wired up to think that way now, but if we were it might would help us in Bible study. example: Luke 22:31 And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold, Satan hath desired to have you (the disciples not just Peter), that he may sift you (the disciples), as wheat: Luke 22:32 But I have prayed for thee (Peter in particular), that thy faith (Peter's faith) fail not: and when thou (Peter) art converted, strengthen thy (Peter's)brethren. |
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2 | But the older NASB did. Why? | Bible general Archive 1 | Hank | 3861 | ||
The possible reason cited by retxar is excellent. Another, and possibly additional, reason may well be that the use of the old forms of pronouns in the second person are no longer used in contemporary English and thus appear odd in what claims to be a modern translation. The claim is alive among some that the old pronoun forms are more reverential than modern ones. This is a matter of opinion and taste, nothing else. Jesus addressed the Father as Abba, tantamount to calling Him "Daddy." The autographs of our New Testament were written in the Koine Greek of the people, not in the Attic Greek of the academe. Do prayers prayed in "King James" English have any special advantage? The question merits no response. Everyone who has thought much about it could probably come up with a definition of their ideal translation of the Bible. Mine would be one in which the sacred texts are given in as clear and understandable standard contemporary English as possible without altering their meaning. In my view, the New American Standard Bible 1995 Update comes close. --Hank. | ||||||