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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | DocTrinsograce | 158666 | ||
Dear Mark, You wrote, "We know that the part about blood and fire and pillars of smoke, and the sun becoming black and the moon to blood has not been fulfilled, at least not as history records." There are many prophecies that "split" things. Daniel, for example, accurately predicts the coming of the messiah right down to the year, then, in the same prophecy, he predict the coming of the antichrist. Although a Preterist would not agree, I believe that we have not yet seen the antichrist, although more time has passed since the time of Christ than passed between the time of Christ and Daniel. Prophecy is like looking out over mountains. Two mountain peaks may appear ahead, but until you arrive at the first one, you might not realize that the second is still much farther ahead. Consequently, a "split" prophecy does not invalidate one mountain peak over another. If God can transmit His word faithfully through sixty-six books, some forty authors, spanning millenia, is it a difficult thing for Him to have arranged that the passage in Revelation 22 would contain the closing statements of John? Indeed, chronologically, those words were penned last of all. You wrote, "I do not believe that dreams rate higher than scripture." That is good. The question should then come to mind, what more do we need than Scripture? If it contains all that we need (the doctrine of the sufficiency of Scripture), then why would we look to anything else? Mishandling of Scripture can take place when one strings unrelated passages together in order to make it say something it does not say. This is called eisegesis. We are commanded to rightly divide the word of Truth. That Greek word means to cut a straight line. You wrote, "...whether or not we should discount any possibility of God speaking to us in a dream..." The question is not whether He can, but whether He does. Certainly He has the capability. Again, study the question of the closing of the canon. Look at those who still think it is open, and look at what they all have in common. You wrote, "what should be our scriptural response if we dream a dream that seems to be from God?" Now that is a useful question! First of all, for me personally, I'd discount it entirely. However, I'd encourage others to dig it out of the Scriptures. If the "message" is not affirmed in Scripture, chuck the dream. If the "message" is affirmed in Scripture, chuck the dream and hang onto Scripture! (After all, God puts it above His own name!) The Scripture is sure. Dreams can have all kinds of sources, from Satan, to self, to salsa! In Him, Doc |
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2 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158801 | ||
Hi Doc, I know that sometimes prophecies can have fulfillment separated by centuries and more, but I always look for the Bible to provide that information before I separate something from another. In Ezekiel 26, as the destruction of Tyre is prophesied, the pronoun changes from "he" in verse 11 to "they" in verse 12, as the aggressor that fulfills the prophecy changes from Nebuchadnezzer to Alexander. Daniel records the prophecy of the 70 weeks. There is a parenthetical passage inserted into the text between the 69th and the 70th weeks (Dan 9:26 describes events that happen after the 69th week, and before the 70th week), that tells us that these weeks are not contiguous. In Isaiah 61, Jesus, as He quotes this, stops in the middle of verse 2, and tells us that this has been fulfilled, but He leaves out the latter part of verse 2, the part about vengeance. Ezekiel describes people differently, Daniel inserts events in the middle, Jesus quotes a specific portion and tells us that has been fulfilled. Each of these have a textual foundation for us to separate them into different fulfillments. I do not see any such textual foundation to separate Joel's prophecy. Can you show me a scriptural basis? I would be interest to know if there is something I am missing. When Peter quotes this prophecy in Acts 2, he quotes the entire passage from the pouring out of God's Spirit, to the signs that will be seen during the openning of the sixth seal in the Revelation, and includes the part about "prophecy, dreams, and visions". Peter is not giving the prophecy, he is citing the fulfillment in response to what had just happened, the pouring out of God's Spirit. But that is not all Peter is talking about. This is not just about how the disciples spoke in foreign languages, but it is about a work that Joel prophesied that God would do in these last days, beginning as the "church" is born on that Pentacost, and concluding as the "church" is concluded, as the sixth seal is openned, and characturized by these things he said, prophecy, dreams, and visions. Joel didn't even mention tongues, but that was the question Peter was answering, as the crowd gathered, each hearing their own language, and asking "what is this?" "This," Peter said, "is what Joel prophesied." Not a series of actions, some now, some later, but a work that is done, which begins with this, and ends with that, and is characturized thus and so. That is how I understand this passage, but like I said, I am always open to learning, and I am interested if there is a texual basis for interpreting it otherwise. Love in Christ, Mark |
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