Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | Bows44 | 158633 | ||
2 Timothy 3:16-17 (New American Standard Bible) 16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work. Malachi 3:6 (New American Standard Bible) 6"For I, the LORD, do not change; therefore you, O sons of Jacob, are not consumed. Heb 13:8 Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever. James 1:17 Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow. Job 33:14-18 (New American Standard Bible) 14"Indeed God speaks once, Or twice, yet no one notices it. 15"In a dream, a vision of the night, When sound sleep falls on men, While they slumber in their beds, 16Then He opens the ears of men, And seals their instruction, 17That He may turn man aside from his conduct, And keep man from pride; 18He keeps back his soul from the pit, And his life from passing over into Sheol. Joel 2:27-29 (New American Standard Bible) The Promise of the Spirit 28"It will come about after this That I will pour out My Spirit on all mankind; And your sons and daughters will prophesy, Your old men will dream dreams, Your young men will see visions. 29"Even on the male and female servants I will pour out My Spirit in those days. Acts 2:16-21 (New American Standard Bible) 16but this is what was spoken of through the prophet Joel: (note: caps not mine) 17'AND IT SHALL BE IN THE LAST DAYS,' God says, 'THAT I WILL POUR FORTH OF MY SPIRIT ON ALL MANKIND; AND YOUR SONS AND YOUR DAUGHTERS SHALL PROPHESY, AND YOUR YOUNG MEN SHALL SEE VISIONS, AND YOUR OLD MEN SHALL DREAM DREAMS; 18EVEN ON MY BONDSLAVES, BOTH MEN AND WOMEN, I WILL IN THOSE DAYS POUR FORTH OF MY SPIRIT And they shall prophesy. 19'AND I WILL GRANT WONDERS IN THE SKY ABOVE AND SIGNS ON THE EARTH BELOW, BLOOD, AND FIRE, AND VAPOR OF SMOKE. 20'THE SUN WILL BE TURNED INTO DARKNESS AND THE MOON INTO BLOOD, BEFORE THE GREAT AND GLORIOUS DAY OF THE LORD SHALL COME. 21'AND IT SHALL BE THAT (B)EVERYONE WHO CALLS ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.' Acts 2:39 The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call." Conclusion: Since all scripture is to be used for teaching, etc., and God does not change, and the promise is for all, it is reasonable to conclude that since He spoke in dreams to many throughout the Bible,including the Apostle Paul, that He can and will speak to us today in dreams as well. Hope this helps, Bows44 |
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2 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | DocTrinsograce | 158642 | ||
Dear Bows, Your first refernce speaks of the value of Scripture. Your second and third references speaks of an attirubte of God. Your fourth reference speaks of God's grace. Your fifth reference is a prophecy fulfilled at Pentecost. Your sixth reference is Peter quoting the fifth reference on the day the prophecy at Pentecost was fulfilled. Your seventh reference is about the gift of salvation. You've alsmost entirely failed to answer the question. The question was, "does God speak to us in dreams" not "can God speak to us in dreams." Bows, it has been explained, we believe in the authority of Scripture in this forum. We do not attempt to undermine that authority even by mishandling of the Scripture. Remember, please, that your use of the forum was predicated on your own support of this high view of Scripture. In Him, Doc |
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3 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158662 | ||
Hi Doc, In regard to Joel's prophecy: Joel 2:28 And it shall come to pass afterward, [that] I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: 29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit. 30 And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke. 31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come. 32 And it shall come to pass, [that] whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call. It seems you are splitting this prophecy into two parts, either between vs. 28 and 29, or between 29 and thirty. If I understand you correctly, you are saying that the part about dreams and visions has already been fulfilled, and no longer occurs. We know that the part about blood and fire and pillars of smoke, and the sun becoming black and the moon to blood has not been fulfilled, at least not as history records. What is your basis in saying that the part about dreams and vision does not apply to today? Are these not the same last days as spoken of then? Would not Peter quoting this passage from Joel in its entirety indicate that it is to be taken as a unit, and not to be split? We know of no time in the "apostolic" era that would fulfill the latter portion of the prophecy. Would not this time spoken of last at least until the complete fulfillment of the prophecy? I just do not see any textual evidence to split the prophecy that way, and Peter's full quotation is a strong reason not to. I think what Bows has said is that: 1. All scripture is to be believed and used. 2. God does not change. 3. Every good thing comes from God. 4. God spoke in the days of Job in dreams, with personal words to turn men to Him. 5. God said that "afterword", the Spirit would be poured out, and people would prophesy, dream dreams, and see visions. 6. The promise of the Spirit is to all called by the LORD, even those "afar off". I think she answers the question very well, although you may or may not agree with her answer. I think the only real challenge to the idea that God speaks to us in dreams in the modern day is from Hebrew 1: Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; According to what I have read (although I admit I truly do not know as a certainty) this was not the last book of the Bible penned, and so even as the writer of Hebrews says that "in these last days God has spoken to us by His Son", God continued to speak through the agency of others as well (again, not that I put dreams in the same position as scripture). Personally, I think that what Kalos posted addresses this whole dream thing very well. Our dreams, when we believe them to be from God, are really between us and God. I see absolutely no reason from scripture that God could not, or would not, speak to someone through a dream. He may even use another to reveal the interpretation of the dream. I do not believe that dreams rate higher than scripture, and strictly pragmatically speaking, I don't think that the discussion or interpretation of dreams is appropriate for this forum, as it would distract from the actual study of God's written Word, which is what this forum is here for. But as far as examining scripturally whether or not we should discount any possiblility of God speaking to us in a dream, and what should be our scriptural response if we dream a dream that seems to be from God, I think Bows answered with a correct scriptural response, not "mis-handling" scripture, that Yes, God can and does, and Kalos, equally well, added that we must examine such according the the written Word, prayfully, remembering that everything is subordinate to scripture. Love in Christ, Mark |
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4 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | DocTrinsograce | 158666 | ||
Dear Mark, You wrote, "We know that the part about blood and fire and pillars of smoke, and the sun becoming black and the moon to blood has not been fulfilled, at least not as history records." There are many prophecies that "split" things. Daniel, for example, accurately predicts the coming of the messiah right down to the year, then, in the same prophecy, he predict the coming of the antichrist. Although a Preterist would not agree, I believe that we have not yet seen the antichrist, although more time has passed since the time of Christ than passed between the time of Christ and Daniel. Prophecy is like looking out over mountains. Two mountain peaks may appear ahead, but until you arrive at the first one, you might not realize that the second is still much farther ahead. Consequently, a "split" prophecy does not invalidate one mountain peak over another. If God can transmit His word faithfully through sixty-six books, some forty authors, spanning millenia, is it a difficult thing for Him to have arranged that the passage in Revelation 22 would contain the closing statements of John? Indeed, chronologically, those words were penned last of all. You wrote, "I do not believe that dreams rate higher than scripture." That is good. The question should then come to mind, what more do we need than Scripture? If it contains all that we need (the doctrine of the sufficiency of Scripture), then why would we look to anything else? Mishandling of Scripture can take place when one strings unrelated passages together in order to make it say something it does not say. This is called eisegesis. We are commanded to rightly divide the word of Truth. That Greek word means to cut a straight line. You wrote, "...whether or not we should discount any possibility of God speaking to us in a dream..." The question is not whether He can, but whether He does. Certainly He has the capability. Again, study the question of the closing of the canon. Look at those who still think it is open, and look at what they all have in common. You wrote, "what should be our scriptural response if we dream a dream that seems to be from God?" Now that is a useful question! First of all, for me personally, I'd discount it entirely. However, I'd encourage others to dig it out of the Scriptures. If the "message" is not affirmed in Scripture, chuck the dream. If the "message" is affirmed in Scripture, chuck the dream and hang onto Scripture! (After all, God puts it above His own name!) The Scripture is sure. Dreams can have all kinds of sources, from Satan, to self, to salsa! In Him, Doc |
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5 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158801 | ||
Hi Doc, I know that sometimes prophecies can have fulfillment separated by centuries and more, but I always look for the Bible to provide that information before I separate something from another. In Ezekiel 26, as the destruction of Tyre is prophesied, the pronoun changes from "he" in verse 11 to "they" in verse 12, as the aggressor that fulfills the prophecy changes from Nebuchadnezzer to Alexander. Daniel records the prophecy of the 70 weeks. There is a parenthetical passage inserted into the text between the 69th and the 70th weeks (Dan 9:26 describes events that happen after the 69th week, and before the 70th week), that tells us that these weeks are not contiguous. In Isaiah 61, Jesus, as He quotes this, stops in the middle of verse 2, and tells us that this has been fulfilled, but He leaves out the latter part of verse 2, the part about vengeance. Ezekiel describes people differently, Daniel inserts events in the middle, Jesus quotes a specific portion and tells us that has been fulfilled. Each of these have a textual foundation for us to separate them into different fulfillments. I do not see any such textual foundation to separate Joel's prophecy. Can you show me a scriptural basis? I would be interest to know if there is something I am missing. When Peter quotes this prophecy in Acts 2, he quotes the entire passage from the pouring out of God's Spirit, to the signs that will be seen during the openning of the sixth seal in the Revelation, and includes the part about "prophecy, dreams, and visions". Peter is not giving the prophecy, he is citing the fulfillment in response to what had just happened, the pouring out of God's Spirit. But that is not all Peter is talking about. This is not just about how the disciples spoke in foreign languages, but it is about a work that Joel prophesied that God would do in these last days, beginning as the "church" is born on that Pentacost, and concluding as the "church" is concluded, as the sixth seal is openned, and characturized by these things he said, prophecy, dreams, and visions. Joel didn't even mention tongues, but that was the question Peter was answering, as the crowd gathered, each hearing their own language, and asking "what is this?" "This," Peter said, "is what Joel prophesied." Not a series of actions, some now, some later, but a work that is done, which begins with this, and ends with that, and is characturized thus and so. That is how I understand this passage, but like I said, I am always open to learning, and I am interested if there is a texual basis for interpreting it otherwise. Love in Christ, Mark |
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